IMAT 2023 Deneme Sınavı No:3 Ağustos 17, 2023 by Burak IMAT 2023 Deneme Sınavı No:3 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q.1 One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing even today. This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today People even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters. Academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare. Shakespeare was a psychiatrist as well as a playwright. Q. 2 Some schools have gymnasiums. All gymnasiums have basketball hoops. Some basketball hoops have glass backboards. Based on the information above, which of the following must be true?Deselect Answer All schools have gymnasiums Some schools have basketball hoops with plastic backboards Some schools have basketball hoops with glass backboards. All schools have basketball hoops Some schools have basketball hoops Q. 3 Annie likes chocolate. Everyone who likes chocolate also enjoys peanut butter. Therefore, Annie enjoys peanut butter. Which of the following has reasoning parallel to the argument above?Deselect Answer Students who read books love theater. The fifth-grader loves theater. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves reading books. Students who read books love theater. The fifth-grader reads books. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves theater Students who read books love theater. The student is a fifth-grader. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves reading books The fifth-grader loves theater. Students who love books love theater. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves reading books The fifth-grader reads books. Students who love theater read books. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves theater Q. 4 Because it is extremely cold outside, the library will be open as a warming center. The library usually opens as a warming center when it is extremely cold or when there is the possibility of another dangerous weather event. Extremely low temperatures count as a dangerous weather event.Which of the following best expresses the conclusion of the passage above?Deselect Answer It is extremely cold outside. Extremely low temperatures count as a dangerous weather event. The library usually opens as a warming center when it is extremely cold. The library will be open as a warming center. The library usually opens as a warming center when there is the possibility of another dangerous weather event. Q. 5 The historic low point in the economy was caused by the high interest rates that were initiated immediately before the low point was achieved.Which of the following most weakens the statement above?Deselect Answer The economy was already worsening well before the interest rates were increased. High interest rates have previously improved the economy. High interest rates always impact economic growth. Interest rates impact other parts of society outside of the economy too. Experts agree that low interest rates are the best way to improve the economy. Q. 6 Which country was a threat to the British industry and power at the outbreak of the 20th century?Deselect Answer Japan Germany Russia France İtaly Q. 7 • Reading Comprehension AssessmentDirections: Read the passage. Then answer the next 3 questions.The Incredible MachineEveryone has a favorite attraction at an amusement park, and I am no different. However, unlike most people who seem to prefer rollercoasters, my favorite ride is a little more gentle. Every time I go to Coney Island, Navy Pier, or the Santa Monica Pier, I absolutely have to ride the Ferris wheel. The Ferris wheel is simple and yet also quite complex. That is, riding it is easy, but how it works is complicated. A series of carts are attached to a wheel, which is attached to a rim. That rim rotates vertically around an axis, and gravity keeps the carts upright. As simple as the ride seems, only advanced engineers can make safe and fun Ferris wheels.What It Lacks in Thrills…While the Ferris wheel is not as thrilling as a rollercoaster, it is still very exciting. The fact of being high in the air makes it so much more entertaining than a lot of rides. I mean, how often do you hang from that high up in daily life?Nevertheless, I have to admit, I don’t seek Ferris wheels out because of their excitement. Rather, I find them very relaxing. At the top of the Ferris wheel, you get beautiful sights of the park. You also get a sense of calm that you don’t get in the hustle and bustle of the park below. Additionally, Ferris wheels are also gorgeous to look at when they are lit up at night. In fact, the original Ferris wheel was designed as much to be seen as to be ridden.It Happened at the World’s FairThe first Ferris wheel was made by and named after George Washington Gale Ferris, Jr. He designed it for the Chicago World’s Fair in 1893. It was the tallest attraction there, standing 264 feet high.However, visitors to the fair were impressed by the size of the ride as well as the mechanics of it. In 1893, anything that was not turned by hand was considered a sight to see. And the wheel, which was a machine, was truly incredible to see. Further, as one visitor put it, the wheel was amazing because it seemed to be missing support. That is, it did not look like it could stand on its own. And yet it did and even rotated!They Keep Reaching Higher and HigherFerris wheel technology has only improved since then. Most of today’s Ferris wheels are much larger than that first one. The largest in the world is the "Singapore Flyer," which stands slightly taller than twice what Ferris’s did! Today, the Ferris wheel is the most common amusement park ride. But that does not mean you should take them for granted. Instead, be thankful for Ferris’ invention. The next time you’re at an amusement park, don’t just look up at the impressive wheel in the sky on your way to a newer attraction.Take it for a spin!As used in paragraph 1, the word attraction most nearly meansDeselect Answer sense park ride vision allure Q. 8 It can be understood that Coney Island, Navy Pier, and the Santa Monica Pier are all examples ofDeselect Answer amusement parks Ferris wheels vacation spots boat docks tourist resorts Q. 9 This passage was most likely written toDeselect Answer describe the author’s favorite amusement park rides explain the original design of Ferris wheels and how they work today describe the history of Ferris wheels and why they are so popular explain the history of Ferris wheels and why the author likes them give a detailed explanation on why the writer likes the history of Ferris wheels Q. 10 What is formed from glucose during anaerobic cell respiration?Deselect Answer Lactate and ATP in cytoplasm Carbon dioxide and water in mitochondria Lactate and carbon dioxide in mitochondria Carbon dioxide and water in cytoplasm Ethanol in mitochondria Q. 11 Which of the following chambers or vessels carry deoxygenated blood in the human heart?Deselect Answer 4 only 1 and 2 only 5 only 1, 2, and 4 6 only Q. 12 What happens during the pathway of glycolysis?Deselect Answer Glucose is broken down into pyruvate. Glucose is broken down into pyruvate. NADH oxidized More ATP is consumed than is produced. Lactic acid is produced Q. 13 To understand the workings of neurons, an experiment was conducted to study the neural pathway of a reflex arc in frogs.A diagram of a reflex arc is given below.Which of the following represents the correct pathway taken by a nerve impulse as it travels from the spinal cord to effector cells?Deselect Answer 1-2-3-4 6-5-4-3 2-3-4-5 4-5-6-7 1-3-5-7 Q. 14 Which process is possible due to the fluidity of cell membranes?Deselect Answer Diffusion Endocytosis Osmosis ATP production Cell recognition Q. 15 Consider the following enzyme pathway:An increase in substance F leads to the inhibition of enzyme 3. All of the following are results of the process EXCEPTDeselect Answer an increase in substance X increased activity of enzyme 6 decreased activity of enzyme 4 increased activity of enzyme 5 increase activity of enzyme 7 Q. 16 The following events occur in mitosis.X: Attachment of spindle microtubules to centromeresY: Movement of sister chromatids to opposite polesZ: Supercoiling of chromosomesWhat is the correct sequence of events?Deselect Answer X → Z → Y X → Y → Z Y → X → Z Z → X → Y Z → Y → X Q. 17 The graph below shows the growth curve of a bacterial culture.Which of the following represents the carrying capacity of the environment?Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 18 What is a feature of transcription?Deselect Answer Both strands of a DNA molecule act as a template for mRNA. Nucleoside triphosphates become nucleotides by losing three phosphates. Transcription occurs due to semi-conservative concepts. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region. The sense strand acts as a template for mRNA Q. 19 The cell cycle is a series of events in the life of a dividing eukaryotic cell. It consists of four stages: G1, S, G2, and M. The duration of the cell cycle varies from one species to another and from one cell type to another. The G1 phase varies the most. For example, embryonic cells can pass through the G1 phase so quickly that it hardly exists, whereas neurons are arrested in the cell cycle and do not divide.During which phase do chromosomes replicate?Deselect Answer G1 S G2 M Both G1 and G2 Q. 20 Which are the possible recombinants in a dihybrid test cross involving the linked genes JQ/jq?Deselect Answer JQ/jq and JJ/Qq Jq/Qq and Qq/JJ Jq/jq and jQ/jq JQ/jq and Jq/jQ Jj/Qq and jj/QQ Q. 21 Here is a sketch of an animal cell.Which of the following statements is correct?Deselect Answer Structure A detoxifies poisons in the cell. Structure B packages proteins for export. Structure C synthesizes RNA. Structure D consists of cytoskeleton. Structure A replicate the DNA Q. 22 In a mammal that had just ingested a large volume of water, what would be secreted into the bloodstream?Deselect Answer More ADH (vasopressin) Less epinephrine (adrenaline) More insulin Less cortisone Less ADH (vasopressin) Q. 23 Four vials were set up to investigate bacterial transformation. Vials 1 and 2 each contained E. coli bacteria that had been made competent and had then been mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for ampicillin (pAMP) resistance. Vials 3 and 4 both contained E. coli that had also been made competent but had not been mixed with a plasmid. Each vial of bacteria was poured onto a nutrient agar plate. Vials 1 and 3 were poured onto plates that contained the antibiotic ampicillin. Vials 2 and 4 were poured onto plates that did not contain ampicillin.This figure shows what the nutrient agar plates looked like. The shaded plates represent extensive growth, and the dots represent individual bacterial colonies.Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing on them include which of the following?Deselect Answer Plate 1 only Plate 2 only Plate 3 only Plates 1 and 3 only Plates 2 and 3 only Q. 24 What causes variation in both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms?Deselect Answer Mutations Non-disjunction in gametes Polygenic inheritance Crossing over Independent assortment Q. 25 A cell contains multiple nuclei with identical genetic information. This cell most likely formed by going throughDeselect Answer multiple rounds of mitosis, but no cytokinesis multiple rounds of the M phase, but no rounds of the S phase multiple rounds of cytokinesis, but no rounds of mitosis multiple rounds of the cell cycle, but no rounds of mitosis multiple rounds of the S phase, but no other phases of the cell cycle Q. 26 What is the correct sequence of these events in the cell cycle? I. Nuclear membrane dissolves.II. Cell size increases.III. Two daughter cells form.VI. DNA replicates.Deselect Answer I, IV, II, III I, IV, III, II II, I, IV, III II, IV, I, III IV, II, III, I Q. 27 A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. As a result, the cell willDeselect Answer lyse swell but remain intact shrivel remain unchanged take up solutes Q. 28 A solute cannot move into a cell by crossing the phospholipid bilayer of the membrane. It can, however, enter through a membrane protein. The fact that solute molecules are entering the cell MOST LIKELY indicates thatDeselect Answer energy is being expended by the cell the solute is moving against its concentration gradient the solute molecules are hydrophilic the cell is in a hypotonic solution solute concentration is higher inside than outside the cell Q. 29 How can a water molecule BEST be described?I. It is nonpolar. II. It has an equal electron distribution. III. It is able to form hydrogen bondsDeselect Answer I only II only III only I and II I and III Q. 30 The phenomenon depicted in the diagram is known asDeselect Answer linkage independent assortment crossing over nondisjunction mutation Q. 31 The graph shows the changes in free energy before, during, and after a biochemical reaction. Which describes the effect of a catalytic enzyme on this reaction?Deselect Answer Energy decreases at point 1. Energy increases at point 1. Energy decreases at point 2. Energy increases at point 2. Energy decreases at point 3. Q. 32 A cell that receives more than the normal number of chromosomes can be called all of the following EXCEPTDeselect Answer aneuploid gametic monosomic polyploid trisomatic Q. 33 Which of the following is an example of a Lewis acid?Deselect Answer Sodium hydroxide Hydrochloric acid Boron trifluoride Sulfuric acid Aluminum chloride Q. 34 In a chemical reaction, if the reactants have a higher energy level than the products, the reaction is classified as:Deselect Answer Exothermic Endothermic Isothermal Adiabatic Isobaric Q. 35 A student prepares a solution using 0.08 g sodium hydroxide and 200 g water. He then takes 50 ml of this solution and transfers it to another container. What is the pH of the remaining solution?Deselect Answer 1 2 9 12 10 Q. 36 For the reaction: A + B ⇌ C + D, which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium towards the products?Deselect Answer Increasing the concentration of A Decreasing the concentration of B Increasing the pressure Adding a catalyst Increasing the temperature Q. 37 A gas sample occupies a volume of 2.50 L at a temperature of 25°C and a pressure of 1.00 atm. If the temperature is increased to 323°C and the pressure is adjusted to 2.00 atm, what will be the new volume of the gas sample?Deselect Answer 1.25 L 2.00 L 2.50 L 3.75 L 5.00 L Q. 38 Which of the following properties is typically associated with metals rather than non-metals?Deselect Answer High electronegativity Brittle at room temperature Low electrical conductivity Tendency to gain electrons in chemical reactions Malleability and ductility Q. 39 Which one of the following is the correct name for the given compound?Deselect Answer 5-ethyl-6-methyl bromo octane 4-bromo-5-ethyl-6-methyl octane 4-bromo-5-ethyl-6-methyl nonane 5-ethyl-6-methyl bromo heptane 4-ethyl-6-methyl 5- bromo heptane Q. 40 How many of the following statements is/are correct? Alkanes are isomers with alkenes with the same number of Carbons. Cyclopropane has an alkene isomer. Cycloalkenes are isomers with alkynes with the same number of Carbons. All hydrocarbons are soluble in water due to their polar molecular structures. Isomer molecules have the same closed structures but different chemical properties. Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 41 Consider the molecular formula C₄H₈. How many different structural isomers can be formed with this formula?Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 42 Which of the following elements has the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1?Deselect Answer Sodium (Na) Magnesium (Mg) Aluminum (Al) Silicon (Si) Potassium (K) Q. 43 What is the atomic number of an element that contains 26 protons and 28 electrons?Deselect Answer 18 26 52 39 65 Q. 44 Which of the following is a characteristic of an acid?Deselect Answer Turns red litmus paper blue pH >7 Increases the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) in water Donates protons (H+) Forms a gelatinous precipitate with sodium chloride (NaCl) Q. 45 In an aqueous solution, which of the following compounds can act as both a Brønsted-Lowry acid and a Brønsted-Lowry base?Deselect Answer Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) Q. 46 Which one of the following correctly describes the lewis acid?Deselect Answer Lewis acids are electron pair donors Lewis acids are H+ donors Lewis acids can form coordinated covalent bonds with lewis bases Lewis acid are H+ acceptors Lewis acids do not react with water Q. 47 What will have no effect on the equilibrium position?Deselect Answer A change in Temperature A Change in concentration of a product Adding a catalyst A change in pressure Increasing the volume of the container Q. 48 Which of the following is the simplest form of the above statement?Deselect Answer 9(2c+1)/(1+2c) 3(2c+1)/c 9(c-3) 3(c-5) 9c-45 Q. 49 Let a and b be numbers such that a3=b2. Which of the following is equivalent to b√a ?Deselect Answer a b c d e Q. 50 Line l goes through points P and Q, whose coordinates are (0,1) and (b,0), respectively. For which of the following values of b is the slope of line l greater than -1/2Deselect Answer 1/2 1 3/2 5/3 5/2 Q. 51 In the figure above, |AB|=6 and |BC|=8. What is the length of segment |BD| ?Deselect Answer 2 12/5 4 24/5 6 Q. 52 The function f is graphed in its entirety above. If the function g is defined so that g(x)=f(−x), then for what value of x does g attain its maximum value? (The graph is drawn in scale)Deselect Answer −3 -2 0 2 3 Q. 53 Consider the points in Cartesian Coordinate system. If do not form a triangle, find the value of .Deselect Answer -1 1 0 2 3 Q. 54 The numbers and , the arithmetic mean of which is are proportional to and What is the arithmetic mean of the numbers proportional to and ?Deselect Answer 12 15 18 21 24 Q. 55 A coin lies on the top of a turntable at a distance R from the center. The table rotates at a constant speed v. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction that can prevent the coin from sliding of the table?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 56 A parallel–plate capacitor is charged by connection to a battery. If the battery is disconnected and the separation between the plates is increased, what will happen to the charge on the capacitor and the voltage across it?Deselect Answer The charge remains fixed and the voltage increases. The charge increases and voltage remains fixed Both remain fixed. Both increase. The charge increases and the voltage decreases. Q. 57 An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown on the graph above of pressure p versus volume V. During which process is no work done on or by the gas?Deselect Answer AB BC CD DE EA Q. 58 A uniform horizontal footbridge is 12.0 m long and weighs 4000 N. It rests on two supports X and Y, as shown. A man of weight 600 N stands a distance of 4.0 m from support X.What is the upward force on the footbridge from support X?Deselect Answer 2200N 2300N 2400N 2600N 2700N Q. 59 A wooden block with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in the figure. The distance I and h are shown there. After some time the coin falls in to the water. Then Deselect Answer I decreases and h increases I increases and h decreases Both I and h increase Both I and h decrease I remains fixed and h increases. Q. 60 Which of the following is equivalent to a unit of momentum?Deselect Answer Joule Newton Joule.second Newton.second Newton.meter 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:8 Haziran 30, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:8 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 Yoga has become a very popular type of exercise, but it may not be for everyone. Before you sign yourself up for a yoga class, you need to examine what it is you want from your fitness routine. If you're looking for a high-energy, fast-paced aerobic workout, a yoga class might not be your best choice.This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer yoga is more popular than high-impact aerobics. before embarking on a new exercise regimen, you should think about your needs and desires. yoga is changing the world of fitness in major ways yoga benefits your body and mind most people think that yoga isn't a rigorous form of exercise. Q. 2 In Dec 2014, the Pew Research Center conducted a survey, asking 1507 people spread among all 50 states and the District of Columbia , “What do you think is more important – to protect the right of Americans to own guns or to control gun ownership?” For the first time in more than two decades, a higher percentage (52%) said it was more important to protect the right of Americans to own guns than to control gun ownership (46%). The researchers used 1993 as a reference point because it's seen as the height of gun violence in America; they also noted that gun-related violence fell sharply in the 1990s and more gradually in later years. But Pew also noted that many Americans didn't seem to agree with the numbers. A survey found that only 12 percent of respondents thought the gun crime rate was lower than it was in 1993 — and 56 percent thought it was higher. It can be concluded from this survey result that:Deselect Answer Though gun crime is thought to be rising, a majority of people are against stricter background checks on gun purchases. Most people are not in favor of proposals to restrict gun sales as gun-related violence is falling. More Americans believe the right to own a gun should be protected, despite perceived increase in gun crime. With falling gun crime, fewer Americans support controls on gun ownership. Gun is necessary for the protection of the most American citizens. Q. 3 Championing objectivity in writing—and, more precisely, decrying solipsism, narcissism, and self-absorption—can of course have legitimate uses. In the era of Twitter and Facebook, when we are given an infinite supply of blank fields to fill with our thoughts, we are all encouraged to think we are more interesting than we actually are. And yet there is a compelling argument to be made, more generally, that journalism’s putative standards of objectivity are sometimes wielded to check not subjectivity, per se, but unwanted subjectivities. The method of testing information – the approach to evidence- is meant to be objective, not the journalist. The key is in the discipline of the craft, not the aim. Which of the following is the writer least likely to agree with?Deselect Answer Objective journalism is not one that is without bias, but one in which bias has to stand up to evidence and results. All journalism has a point of view and a set of interests it advances. Objectivity in writing is about making the story more than just about the writer. We think we are more interesting then we are in reality. By not taking sides in an argument a journalist can strive to be objective, a worthwhile aspiration even if it is not perfectly achieved. Q. 4 Industry representative: Thorough research of the results of all relevant clinical trials done to date reveal that there is no reason to believe that the artificial flavoring used in most brands of beef jerky contributes to hardening of the arteries when occasionally consumed in reasonable amounts. Therefore, those who enjoy beef jerky can consume it without any concern for their health. Which one of the following points to a weakness in the reasoning in the industry representative’s argument?Deselect Answer The research done was merely a review of experimental results and did not involve direct observation of the study participants. Having healthy arteries is not precisely the same as being generally healthy overall. Those who eat beef jerky might also consume other convenience foods that contribute to unhealthy arteries. Other meat snacks might contain substances that impact the health of human arteries. Consumption of mass quantities of beef jerky could be a symptom of a tendency to overeat generally, which can, itself, contribute to arterial health problems. Q. 5 The birth rate in Country X is down this year by 12% compared to last year. The death rate in Country X has remained stable for several years. Therefore, the population of Country X is decreasing measurably. Which of the following is assumed by the author of the argument above?Deselect Answer The causes of the declining birthrate in Country X can be discovered through physician surveys. Statisticians are able to predict future changes in the size of the population of Country X. Country Y, which has a nearly identical population to Country X, is experi- encing the same population shift as Country X. There was no significant migration into Country X during the time under discussion. The causes of the declining birthrate in Country X are primarily economic in nature. Q. 6 On a particular Saturday, a student will perform six activities—grocery shopping, hedge trimming, jogging, kitchen cleaning, laundry, and motorbike servicing. Each activity will be performed once, one at a time. The order in which the activities are performed is subject to the following conditions: Grocery shopping has to be immediately after hedge trimming. Kitchen cleaning has to be earlier than grocery shopping. Motorbike servicing has to be earlier than laundry. Motorbike servicing has to be either immediately before or immediately after jogging. Which one of the following, if substituted for the condition that motorbike servicing has to be earlier than laundry, would have the same effect in determining the order of the student’s activities?Deselect Answer Laundry has to be one of the last three activities. Laundry has to be either immediately before or immediately after jogging. Jogging has to be earlier than laundry. Laundry has to be earlier than hedge trimming. Laundry has to be earlier than jogging. Q. 7 In a village, the ratio of number of males to females is 5 : 4. The ratio of number of literate males to literate females is 2 : 3. The ratio of the number of illiterate males to illiterate females is 4 : 3. If 3500 males in the village are literate, then the total number of females in the village isDeselect Answer 3000 3042 3050 2050 2305 Q. 8 A gumball machine has three different colored gumballs: red, blue and yellow. If you buy 3 gumballs, how many different combinations of colors could you buy?Deselect Answer 9 15 10 16 12 Q. 9 What is the approximate difference between the percentage literacy rate increased in boys from 2011 to 2015 and percentage literacy rate increased in girls from 2013 to 2016. Deselect Answer 19% 15% 10% 7% 12% Q. 10 A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 11 How many rings appear on the Olympic flag?Deselect Answer 1 3 5 7 9 Q. 12 What is the atomic sign for Helium on the periodic table? Deselect Answer H₂O He Fe Se Hf Q. 13 Where are the Bellagio, Caesars Palace, and Luxor hotels located?Deselect Answer Rome Las Vegas New York Barcelona Cairo Q. 14 Which card game requires players to "ante"?Deselect Answer Poker Go Fish Hearts Solitaire Crazy Eights Q. 15 Steven Tyler is the singer of which famous band? Deselect Answer The Rolling Stones The Beatles Bon Jovi Aerosmith Black Sabbath Q. 16 Who plays the role of the archaeologist and adventurer, Indiana Jones? Deselect Answer Russell Crowe Morgan Freeman Harrison Ford Mel Gibson Sean Connery Q. 17 In Greek mythology, Hades is the God of what? Deselect Answer Love Wine and festivals The sea The sky The underworld Q. 18 Which famous woman in history was the lover of Mark Antony? Deselect Answer Guinevere Joan of Arc Eva Peron Cleopatra Pocahontas Q. 19 What is the currency of Scotland?Deselect Answer Euro Yen Haggis Pound Sterling Gideon Q. 20 Which of these famous novelists declined to receive the Nobel Prize for Literature?Deselect Answer Jean-Paul Sartre Ernest Hemingway Gabriel García Márquez John Steinbeck Marcel Proust Q. 21 Which of the following regions within a sarcomere remain UNCHANGED in length when a healthy human muscle cell contracts. A-band I-band H-band Deselect Answer 2 only 1 only 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only Q. 22 Strenuous exercise lowers the blood pH, causing the curves for both hemoglobin and myoglobin to shift to the right. This shift results inDeselect Answer the capture of more O2 by hemoglobin an increase in the number of O2-binding sites an unloading of O2 at higher partial pressures the capture of more O2 by myoglobin Partial Pressure of O2 has very little effect on Myoglobin Q. 23 The diagram below shows a developing worm embryo at the four-cell stage. Experiments have shown that when cell 3 divides, the anterior daughter cell gives rise to muscle and gonads and the posterior daughter cell gives rise to the intestine. However, if the cells of the embryo are separated from one another early during the four-cell stage, no intestine will form. Other experiments have shown that if cell 3 and cell 4 are recombined after the initial separation, the posterior daughter cell of cell 3 will once again give rise to normal intestine. Which of the following is the most plausible explanation for these findings?Deselect Answer Cell 4 transfers genetic material to cell 3, which directs the development of intestinal cells. Cell 3 passes an electrical signal to cell 4, which induces differentiation in cell 4. A cell surface protein on cell 4 signals cell 3 to induce formation of the worm’s intestine. The plasma membrane of cell 4 interacts with the plasma membrane of the posterior portion of cell 3, causing invaginations that become microvilli Cell 4 includes only required genes for intestine Q. 24 Paramecia are unicellular protists that have contractile vacuoles to remove excess intracellular water. In an experimental investigation, paramecia were placed in salt solutions of increasing osmolarity. The rate at which the contractile vacuole contracted to pump out excess water was determined and plotted against osmolarity of the solutions, as shown in the graph. Which of the following is the correct explanation for the data?Deselect Answer The contractile vacuole is less efficient in solutions of high osmolarity because of the reduced amount of ATP produced from cellular respiration. In an isosmotic salt solution, there is no diffusion of water into or out of the paramecia, so the contraction rate is zero. At higher osmolarity, lower rates of contraction are required because more salt diffuses into the paramecia. The contraction rate increases as the osmolarity decreases because the amount of water entering the paramecia by osmosis increases. ATP produced from photosynthesis Q. 25 An individual’s humoral response to a particular antigen differs depending on whether or not the individual has been previously exposed to that antigen. Which of the following graphs properly represents the humoral immune response when an individual is exposed to the same antigen more than once?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 26 Most fish do not sink in water because of the presence of:I. swim bladderII. air bladderIII. air sacsIV. air in spongy bonesDeselect Answer I and II are correct II and III are correct III and IV are correct I, II, III and IV are correct I and III are correct Q. 27 Which of the following is/are the correct location(s) of the large ribosomes in typical eukaryotic cells, e.g. a human white blood cell? attached to the outside of the endoplasmic reticulum attached to the inside of the endoplasmic reticulum free in the cytoplasm Deselect Answer 1 and 3 only 1,2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1 only Q. 28 The grey colour in hens occurs in the heterozygous offspring of white and black individuals. Which of the following crosses would produce an offspring in the ratio of 1 white : 2 grey : 1 black?Deselect Answer black x white grey x white grey x grey black x grey white x white Q. 29 Which of the following is/are true for a gene maternally inherited? its locus is on mitochondrial DNA it is inherited only by females its locus is on the X chromosomes it is passed by the mother to all offspring Deselect Answer 1 and 4 only 2,3 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 2 only 2 and 3 only Q. 30 The activity of neurons of the respiratory centers is modulated by signals from chemoreceptors that: Deselect Answer in case of increase of CO₂ in the blood send nerve impulses to decrease the respiratory rate in case of increase of CO₂ in the blood send nerve impulses to increase the respiratory rate in case of a decrease of CO₂ in the blood send nerve impulses to increase the respiratory rate in case of increase of O₂ in the blood send nerve impulses to increase the respiratory rat in case of blood pH increase send nerve impulses to increase respiratory rate Q. 31 Identify the substances i, ii and iii corresponding with the dominant transport processes for molecules passing through the nephron of a normal kidney.Deselect Answer i: glucose; ii: creatinine; iii: protein i: creatinine; ii: protein; iii: urea i: protein; ii: salt; iii: glucose i: creatinine; ii: protein; iii: glucose i: urea; ii: protein; iii: creatinine Q. 32 Metabolic processes are:Deselect Answer those which alter homeostasis in an organism only carried out at the “organ” level or an organism only anabolic and at the “cellular” level those which produce energy in an organism the sum total of all anabolic and catabolic activities in an organism Q. 33 Which of the following rows are correct about these naturally occurring biological molecules?Deselect Answer 1, 2 and 3 only 1, 3 and 4 only 2, 3 and 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 1, 2 and 4 only Q. 34 Plants have _____________ While animals lack it. Deselect Answer starch fat protein carbohydrates cellulose Q. 35 Familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an inherited disease caused by a dominant allele. People with FH have high concentrations of cholesterol in the blood, which can lead to an increased risk of coronary heart disease. The family tree shows the inheritance of this disease in one family. Which row shows the number of individuals in the family tree with each genotype?Deselect Answer row 2 row 3 row 1 row 4 row 5 Q. 36 Which molecule possesses a trigonal -bipyramidal structure?Deselect Answer ICl₂ BrF₃ SF₄ PF₅ PF₆- Q. 37 Which molecule does not have a dipole moment?Deselect Answer CO Her XeF₄ NH₃ HF Q. 38 What number of moles of O₂ is needed to produce 14.2 grams of P₄O₁₀ from P? (Molecular weight P₄O₁₀ = 284) Deselect Answer 0.500 mole 0.0625 mole 0.125 mole 0.250 mole 0.500 mole Q. 39 ... C₁₀H₁₂O₄S(s ) + ... O₂(g) →... CO₂(g) + ... SO₂(g) + ... H₂O(g) When the equation above is balanced and all coefficients are reduced to their lowest whole-number terms, the coefficient for O₂(g) isDeselect Answer 6 7 12 14 28 Q. 40 How many grams of O atoms are in 0.5 moles of CO₂? O:16 g/MolDeselect Answer 4 6 8 16 24 Q. 41 Select the term best describing the series of elements: Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu.Deselect Answer d-transition metals representative elements metalloids alkaline earth metals halogens Q. 42 Which of the following terms accurately describes the energy associated with the process: Li(g) → Li+(g) + e-Deselect Answer electron affinity binding energy ionization energy electronegativity none of these Q. 43 In a sample of pure water, only one of the following statements is always true at all conditions of temperature and pressure. Which one is always true?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 44 What is the IUPAC name for the given molecule?Deselect Answer 2,6-diethyl-3-nonyne 2,5-diethyl-3-nonyne 3,7-dimethyl-5-nonyne 3,7-dimethyl-4-nonyne 2,6-diethyl-3-heptyne Q. 45 The combustion of ethane (C2H6) is represented by the equation: 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) In this reaction:Deselect Answer the rate of consumption of ethane is seven times faster than the rate of consumption of oxygen. the rate of formation of CO₂ equals the rate of formation of water. water is formed at a rate equal to two-thirds the rate of formation of CO₂ the rate of consumption of oxygen equals the rate of consumption of water. CO₂ is formed twice as fast as ethane is consumed. Q. 46 Which answer includes all the followings that are chemical changes and not physical changes? I. freezing of waterII. rusting of ironIII. dropping a piece of iron into hydrochloric acid (H2 is produced)IV. burning a piece of woodV. emission of light by a kerosene oil lampDeselect Answer III and IV II and V I, II, III, IV, and V II, III, and V II, III, IV, and V Q. 47 Which one of the formulas for ionic compounds below is incorrect?Deselect Answer SrCl₂ Cs₂S AlCl₃ Al₃P₂ CaS Q. 48 The valence electrons of representative elements areDeselect Answer in s orbitals only. located in the outermost occupied major energy level. located closest to the nucleus. located in d orbitals. located in the innermost occupied shell. Q. 49 Which one of the following violates the octet rule?Deselect Answer PCl₃ CBr₄ BF₃ OF₂ H₂O Q. 50 The correct dot formulation for nitrogen trichloride has:Deselect Answer 3 N-Cl bonds and 10 lone pairs of electrons. 3 N=Cl bonds and 6 lone pairs of electrons. 1 N-Cl bond, 2 N=Cl bonds and 7 lone pairs of electrons. 2 N-Cl bonds, 1 N=Cl bond and 8 lone pairs of electrons. 3 N-Cl bonds and 9 lone pairs of electrons. Q. 51 Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 52 What is the sum of the measures of all interior angles of the figure below (marked with dots) ?Deselect Answer 900° 1260° 1080° 1440° None of these Q. 53 A cubic curve is given by f(x)= 4x3-8x2-x+k where k is a non-zero constant. Given that ( x − 2) is a factor of f ( x) , find the f(1) =?Deselect Answer -3 -2 0 1 2 Q. 54 -7 + 3log6(9n-18) = -1Deselect Answer -2 0 3 4 6 Q. 55 In which system are the lines parallel?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 56 An object is dropped at time t = 0 from a high building. Air resistance is significant. Three graphs are plotted against time: the height of the object above the ground the speed of the object the magnitude of the resultant force on the object. What are the quantities X, Y and Z?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 57 The force F against extension x graphs for four different Wires A, B, C and D up to their breaking points are shown below.Which Wire has the greatest work done on it before it breaks?Deselect Answer A B C D None of these Q. 58 A trolley M collides head-on with a trolley L. The mass of trolley M is greater than the mass of trolley L. The trolleys join together after the collision,Which statement is correct?Deselect Answer The momentum of each trolley is conserved, Trolley M experiences a greater force than trolley L during the collision, The total force acting on the two-trolley system during the collision is zero. Kinetic energy is conserved. Center of momentum changes after collision Q. 59 The moderate temperatures of islands throughout the world has much to do with water'sDeselect Answer poor conductivity. high specific heat capacity. vast supply of thermal energy. absorption of solar energy. high evaporation rate. Q. 60 Figure 38.19 shows a rectangular coil of wire placed in a magnetic field and free to rotate about axis AB. If the current flows into the coil at C, the coil will:Deselect Answer commence to rotate anticlockwise commence to rotate clockwise remain in the vertical position experience a force towards the north pole experience a force towards the south pole 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:7 Haziran 23, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:7 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice cream. But that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners.This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods. ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream. ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item. low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream consumers are fickle and it is impossible to please them Q. 2 Many scientific studies have found links between genius and mental illness, particularly bipolar disorder in which patients have violent mood swings between elation and depression. In one interesting Swedish study, 700,000 Swedes had intelligence tests at age 16 and again 10 years later. Those who scored well were four times more likely than the others to have developed bipolar disorder. The US neurologist James Fallon came up with a convincing argument based on his own findings in the field: the brain area involved in mood swings is the same area where creativity is born. This may explain why some people can draw previously unseen connections among ideas, images, shapes and the like.Which of the following is inferred from the above?Deselect Answer Those with bipolar disorder are likely to be highly intelligent. Most people who excel in creativity are likely suffering from a mental problem. Bipolar disorder can be good for many ways. Often there is a correlation between mental illness and genius. Mental disorders give birth to genius. Q. 3 More and more computer software that is capable of correcting not just spelling, but also grammar and punctuation is being developed. Therefore, it is increasingly unnecessary for working reporters and writers to have a complete knowledge of the principles of English grammar and punctuation. Consequently, in training journal- ists, less emphasis should be placed on the principles of grammar so that students and professors can concentrate on other important subjects. Which one of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument given for the recommendation above?Deselect Answer The effective use of software that corrects grammar and punctuation requires an understanding of grammatical principles. Much of the software that corrects grammar and punctuation is already in use. Development of more complex ethical guidelines for reporters and writers has meant that professors and students in journalism schools must allow time for teaching such issues. Most of the software that is capable of correcting grammar and punctuation can be run on the types of computers available to most media outlets. The journalism curriculum already requires that journalism students be familiar with, and able to use, a variety of software packages. Q. 4 Physician: The continued use of this drug to treat patients with a certain disease cannot be adequately supported by the proposition that any drug that treats the disease is more effective than no treatment at all. What must also be taken into account is that this drug is very expensive and has notable side effects. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the physi- cian’s argument?Deselect Answer The drug is more effective than no treatment at all. The drug is more effective than other forms of treatment for the disease. The drug is more expensive than other forms of treatment for the disease. The drug should not be used to treat the disease unless it is either effective or inexpensive. The drug’s possible effectiveness in treating the disease is not sufficient justification for using it. Q. 5 It is widely accepted that eating sugar can cause weight gain. Indeed, many people who are susceptible to weight gain report that, in their own experience, eating large amounts of sugar is invariably followed by a measurable weight gain within a few days. However, it is likely that common wisdom has confused cause and effect. Recent studies suggest that hormonal changes associated with stress can cause weight gain, and there is ample evidence that people who are fond of sugar tend to eat more of it when they are under stress. The argument employs which one of the following argumentative strategies?Deselect Answer It cites evidence that questions the accuracy of the evidence advanced in support of the position that is being called into question. It gives additional evidence that suggests an alternative interpretation of the evidence offered in support of the position being challenged. It relies upon the superiority of science versus common opinion as a means of dismissing the relevance of evidence based upon common experience. It shows that the position being challenged is not consistent with cited, proven factual evidence. It calls into question the intelligence of those who subscribe to a certain popularly held belief Q. 6 From a group of seven people—J, K, L, M, N, P, and Q—exactly four will be selected to attend a diplomat’s retirement dinner. Selection conforms to the following conditions: Either J or K must be selected, but J and K cannot both be selected. Either N or P must be selected, but N and P cannot both be selected. N cannot be selected unless L is selected. Q cannot be selected unless K is selected. There is only one acceptable group of four that can be selected to attend the retirement dinner if which one of the following pairs of people is selected?Deselect Answer J and L K and M L and N L and Q M and Q Q. 7 Pinky is standing in a queue at a ticket counter. Suppose the ratio of the number of persons standing ahead of Pinky to the number of persons standing behind her in the queue is 3 : 5. If the total number of persons in the queue is less than 300, then the maximum possible number of persons standing ahead of Pinky isDeselect Answer 112 122 111 124 123 Q. 8 The average number of chocolates of Dairy Milk, 5-star and Mars taken together is equal to number of chocolates distributed of which of the given type?Deselect Answer 5-Star Snickers Mars Twix None of these Q. 9 John knows he will need four more books priced at $10, $15, $20, $25 for next term. When he bought the books in the first shop, he was given a loyalty card. For every full $10 that he has spent he will get $1 he can use when he buys more books. However, the first shop has reduced its discount to 10% before that offer. The second shop has charged its discount offer to $9 off any purchase totaling $60 or more. The third shop has applied 15% off any book that normally cost $20 or more. John still wants to buy all four books from the same shop. What is the cheapest amount he could pay for them?Deselect Answer 59 60 61 62.25 63.25 Q. 10 The shapes from the game Tetris are sometimes called ‘tetrominoes’. There are five different tetrominoes: In some of them it is possible to write in the numbers 1 to 4 so that consecutive numbers are not in adjacent squares ( horizontally or vertically). How many of the above shapes can’t this be done?Deselect Answer 0 1 2 3 4 Q. 11 Christ the Redeemer’ is located in which place?Deselect Answer Rio De Janeiro Salvador Brasilia Porto Alegre Bari Q. 12 Name the other house of the Parliament of US other than the House of Representatives?Deselect Answer Selicate Democratic party Setate Senate House of commons Q. 13 Table Mountain’ is located at which place?Deselect Answer Johannesburg , South Africa Pretoria, South Africa Cape Town, South Africa Port Elizabeth, South Africa Stellenbosch, South Africa Q. 14 Which among the following is a symbol for Peace?Deselect Answer Green eyed monster Jade Olive Branch Heart White stick Q. 15 Which is the tallest waterfall in the world?Deselect Answer Niagara Falls Angel Falls Iguazu Falls Jog Falls Duden Falls Q. 16 The headquarters of United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) is located in …Deselect Answer New York City Geneva Rome Washington DC Berlin Q. 17 When I find myself in times of trouble, Mother Mary comes to me” is the opening line of which song?Deselect Answer Smells like teen spirit – Nirvana Get lucky – Daft Punk Sweet Child O’ Mine – Gun N’ Roses Kashmir – Led Zeppelin Let it be – The Beatles Q. 18 Which author is known for creating Hercule Poirot?Deselect Answer James Patterson Stephen King Arthur Conan Doyle Agatha Christie Tony Morrison Q. 19 What is the chemical symbol for table salt?Deselect Answer S NaCl NH₄F CAL PT Q. 20 In which Italian city is “Romeo and Juliet” (Shakespeare) set?Deselect Answer Rome Verona Bologna Florence Sicily Q. 21 In the nitrogen cycle, the transformation of gaseous nitrogen into nitrogen-containing compounds is performed primarily byDeselect Answer fungi bacteria green plants herbivores carnivores Q. 22 A pathogenic bacterium has been engulfed by a phagocytic cell as part of the nonspecific (innate) immune response. Which of the following illustrations best represents the response?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 23 Testosterone oxido-reductase is a liver enzyme that regulates testosterone levels in alligators. One study compared testosterone oxido-reductase activity between male and female alligators from Lake Woodruff, a relatively pristine environment, and from Lake Apopka, an area that has suffered severe contamination. The graph above depicts the findings of that study. The data in the graph best support which of the following claims?Deselect Answer Environmental contamination elevates total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in females. Environmental contamination elevates total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in males. Environmental contamination reduces total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in females. Environmental contamination reduces total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in males. Environmental contamination cannot effect total testosterone oxido-reductase activity in males. Q. 24 Tertiary structure of proteins is not affected by:Deselect Answer hydrogen bonds peptide bonds hydrophobic interactions disulfide bonds amino acids sequence Q. 25 The dipeptide represented below is in aqueous solution. Which numbered bond (1 to 5) needs to be broken in this dipeptide directly to form two amino acids?Deselect Answer 1 4 2 3 5 Q. 26 A human kidney filters about 200 liters of blood each day. Approximately two liters of liquid and nutrient waste are excreted as urine. The remaining fluid and dissolved substances are reabsorbed and continue to circulate throughout the body. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted in response to reduced plasma volume. ADH targets the collecting ducts in the kidney, stimulating the insertion of aquaporins into their plasma membranes and an increased reabsorption of water. If ADH secretion is inhibited, which of the following would initially result?Deselect Answer The number of aquaporins would increase in response to the inhibition of ADH. The person would decrease oral water intake to compensate for the inhibition of ADH. The person would produce greater amounts of dilute urine. Blood filtration would increase to compensate for the lack of aquaporins. Blood filtration will stop ultimately Q. 27 Which of the following is correct for cholesterol in humans?Deselect Answer it maintains the fluidity of the cell membrane it is used to make all hormones it is a good source of energy because of the number of hydrogen atoms it forms hydrogen bonds with water which stabilizes the cell membrane it transports fatty acids around the body Q. 28 Which of the following cellular structures are involved in the synthesis of glycoproteins that have to be secreted? the golgi apparatus the nucleus the centriole the rough ER Deselect Answer 1, 2 and 3 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 4 2, 3 and 4 all of them Q. 29 Pyruvate produced by glycolysis:Deselect Answer is stored as reserve is transformed in glucose is reduced to acetyl-coenzyme A is oxidized to acetyl group produces two molecules of ATP Q. 30 The picture below shows two processes involved in reproduction.Deselect Answer embryogenesis mitosis meiosis organogenesis fertilization Q. 31 An individual has inherited from healthy parents a congenital form of deafness. This genetic abnormality is caused by a recessive allele (d) of a gene which dominant allele (D) allows the normal perception of sounds What would be the genotype of such individual parents?Deselect Answer DD and dd dd and dd Dd and Dd DD and Dd it cannot be determined Q. 32 Wheat (Triticum aestivum) used in bread making has 42 chromosomes; durum wheat (Triticum turgidum) usedto produce pasta has 28 chromosomes; both species descen from wild wheat (Triticum tauschii and Triticum monococcum), which have 14 chromosomes, instead. Such a diversity in chromosome number is called:Deselect Answer point mutation cloning polyploidy polyallelia polygamy Q. 33 A DNA molecule is replicated twice. Which percentage of the resulting DNA was part of the parent molecule?Deselect Answer 50% 100% 75% 25% 0% Q. 34 The diagram shows the relationship between the features of two substances involved in digestion: bile and amylase Which of the following is correct for X, Y and Z?Deselect Answer X: assimilates lipid, Y: stored in the gallbladder, Z: digests maltose X: digests lipid, Y: works in the small intestine, Z: digests starch X: digests lipid, Y: produced by the pancreas, Z: produces maltose X: emulsifies lipid, Y: produced by the pancreas, Z: digests maltose X: emulsifies lipid, Y: works in the small intestine, Z: digests starch Q. 35 On a hot summer day, the diuresis of a person who doesn’t drink:Deselect Answer decreases when the humidity decreases decreases because he sweats a lot is the same as in a cold day increases because he sweats a lot increases if he eats salty food Q. 36 What is the volume of 25.0 grams of water at 4.0 °C?Deselect Answer 26.7 mL 23.7 mL 22.5 mL 19.9 mL 17.9 mL Q. 37 What is the density of 250 mL of a solution that weighs 200 grams?Deselect Answer 0.8 g/mL 0.06 g/mL 0.5 g/mL 1.25 g/mL 32 g/mL Q. 38 How many moles of NaCl are in 125 mL of a 0.2 M NaCl solution?Deselect Answer 0.025 moles 0.25 moles 2.5 moles 0.5 moles 25 moles Q. 39 What is the mass of 0.5 L of a solution that has a density of 1.2 g/mL?Deselect Answer 0.4 g 6 g 1200 g 0.6 g 500 g Q. 40 How many grams of NH4Cl are in 250 mL of a 0.6 M NH4Cl solution? (N:14, H:1, Cl: 35,5)Deselect Answer 75 g 0.15 g 22.5 g 8 g 45 g Q. 41 What is the general formula for an alkane?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 42 Which of the following functional groups is present in an alcohol?Deselect Answer hydroxyl carboxyl ether alkyl phenyl Q. 43 What is the IUPAC name for the compound CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2OH?Deselect Answer 2-propanol 2-methylbutanol 2-methylpentanol 3-methylpentanol 3-hexanol Q. 44 Which of the following is an example of an aromatic hydrocarbon?Deselect Answer ethyne benzene hexane ethene butane Q. 45 Which of the following is an example of an aromatic hydrocarbon?‾Deselect Answer [H3O⁺] > [OH‾] [H3O⁺] < [OH‾] pH = 7 [H3O⁺] = [OH‾] It cannot conduct electricity. Q. 46 Which one of the following separation methods is the best for separating alcohol and water mixture?Deselect Answer Filtration Simple Distillation Fractional Distillation Crystallization Decantation Q. 47 How many isomers are present for a molecule with the molecular formula C₄H₁₀?Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 48 Which one of the following cannot result in a redox reaction?Deselect Answer Acid-Base neutralization Zn solid and Copper(II) sulfate mixture Rusting Iron Combustion of ethene None of the above Q. 49 Which one of the following is true about alkaline earth metals?Deselect Answer They form 2⁺ cations in ionic compounds. They are not reactive as much as group 3 metals. They have 1 valence electron in the outermost energy level. Their oxidation states are +1 and +2 They form acidic solutions in water Q. 50 Which one of the following is a transition metal?Deselect Answer Calcium Barium Fransium Cesium Nickel Q. 51 In Figure ΔABC is circumscribing a circle. Find the radius of the circle?Deselect Answer 2 2.4 √5 √6 4 Q. 52 The smallest negative number satisfying both the quadratic inequalities x2<4x+77 and x2>4 isDeselect Answer -3 -4 -11 -7 -2 Q. 53 A graph drawn in the coordinate system which is scaled in 1 units is presented above. which one of the following is the equation of the graph?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 54 The diagram shows a triangular prism.The volume of the prism is 5000 cm3 What is the surface area of the prism? Deselect Answer 425 cm² 500 cm² 950 cm² 1000 cm² 1250 cm² Q. 55 For the function above find f(1/2)Deselect Answer 1/2 1/3 1 2 3 Q. 56 A bead is released from rest at point P and slides along a wire, as shown The wire loops around and forms a vertical circle of diameter 40 cm. At point Q, the bead has a speed of 1.4 m s–1.Air resistance and friction on the wire are negligible.What is the approximate height h from which the bead is released? (Gravitational acceleration is 10 N/kg)Deselect Answer 0.30 m 0.40 m 0.50 m 0.60 m 0.80 m Q. 57 A cable is attached to an object of weight 30N. the object is pulled vertically upwards with an acceleration of 6.0 m/s2 (Gravitational acceleration is 10 N/kg) What is the tension in the cable?Deselect Answer 12 N 18 N 30 N 48 N 64 N Q. 58 A 9V battery is connected to two resistors as shown. The terminals X and Y are connected to another circuit that draws a current of 1 mA. The current trom the battery is 3 mA.What is the power supplied to the circuit connected between X and Y?Deselect Answer 6 mW 12 mW 18 mW 27 mW 30 mW Q. 59 A group of civil engineers are assessing whether or not to use solid concrete pillars or hollow metal tubes to support a building. One such tube is shown below. The tube is placed on a horizontal surface. The tube is made of metal of thickness t. The tube has height h and a mean internal radius R. the radius R>> thickness t. A heavy metal block of mass m is placed on top of the tube.What is the approximate pressure p acting on the tube Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 60 A small amount of copper is heated in a container. The copper starts to melTWhich statement about the melting of copper is correct?Deselect Answer Temperature is constant and the kineticencrgy ofthc copper atoms increases. Temperature increases and the potential energy of the copper atoms increases. Temperature is constant and the potential energy of the copper atoms increases. Temperature increases and the kinetic energy of the copper atoms increases. Temperature increases and potential energy stays constant. 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı EP: 1 Haziran 16, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı EP: 1 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 If you're a fitness walker, there is no need for a commute to a health club. Your neighborhood can be your health club. You don't need a lot of fancy equipment to get a good workout either. All you need is a well-designed pair of athletic shoes.This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer fitness walking is a better form of exercise than weight lifting. a membership in a health club is a poor investment. walking outdoors provides a better workout than walking indoors. fitness walking is a convenient and valuable form of exercise. poorly designed athletic shoes can cause major foot injuries. Q. 2 In an in Vitro study, 160 white cats were injected with Salt X. 160 other white cats were injected with placebo. In two weeks, 39% of the white cats, who were injected with Salt X showed symptoms of Kay fever. Hence it can be concluded that Kay fever is caused by some elements similar to the elements in Salt X. Which of the following statements would most seriously weaken the above discussion?Deselect Answer People suffering from Kay fever are the victims of the golden viper of Sindh. One among the 160 white cats had already showed symptoms of Kay fever prior to the experiment The natural habitats of white cats does not contain any of the elements found in Salt X. The 160 white cats used in the experiment were kept isolated from each other. The scientists administered the injections being ignorant of the contents of the salt used Q. 3 Giant Motors is attempting to dominate the automobile market by promoting its products with an expensive television advertising campaign. But, the results of recent surveys reveal that, in the opinion of 85 percent of all consumers, Giant Motors already dominates the market. Since any product with more than half of all sales in any given market is already dominant, Giant Motors dominates the market now and must only preserve its market share in order to continue to dominate its market. The argument commits which one of the following errors in reasoning?Deselect Answer Failing to eliminate the possibility that what seems to be the outcome of a specific market condition might actually be the cause of the condition Confusing a condition necessary for certain outcome to obtain for a condi- tion that, alone, is sufficient to assure that result Treating the failure to establish the falsity of a specific claim as tantamount to showing that such a claim is certainly accurate Accepting evidence that a claim is believed to be true as evidence that the claim, itself, is actually true Describing the results of a survey that was done in the past as acceptably predicting future conditions Q. 4 Researchers concur with one another on the issue of the harm that can result when children are exposed to microscopic asbestos fibers. The resulting disease, asbestosis, is almost always debilitating and even sometimes fatal. Many older school buildings contain asbestos insulation around hot water pipes and heating ducts because, until recently, the dangers of asbestos were unknown. Yet, these same researchers also agree that laws requiring the removal of asbestos from schools could actually lead to an increased likelihood of exposure to asbestos fibers to the students who attend those schools. Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the researchers’ positions?Deselect Answer New insulation materials used instead of asbestos are as potentially harmful to children as asbestos is. The money that would be spent on the removal of asbestos from schools could be spent in other ways that would be more likely to increase the overall health of school children Other sources of asbestos, such as automobile and household uses, are responsible for more cases of asbestosis than school-based sources are. Removing the asbestos from older schools disperses a large quantity of asbestos fibers into the air, where they are more easily inhaled than when they are left in place around the pipes and ducts. Lead-based paint poses more of a health hazard to children than asbestos does. Q. 5 Murcheson’s drawing of the Lincoln Monument contains several inaccuracies. Therefore, your attempt to reproduce the drawing of the monument will not be a very accurate reproduction of the drawing. Which one of the following is most similar in its flawed reasoning to the flawed reasoning in the argument above?Deselect Answer Katrina’s presentation was made up primarily of fabrications and distortions. So the video recording made of it cannot be of good quality. An architect who creates a model of an ugly building must necessarily create an ugly model, unless the sculpture is a distorted representation of the building. If a puppy’s coloring resembles its mother’s, then if the mother’s fur is curly, the puppy’s fur must also be curly. Kelly imitated Rory. But, Kelly is different from Rory, so Kelly could not have imitated Rory very well. Quentin’s second movie is similar to his first. Therefore, his second movie must be entertaining since his first movie won many awards. Q. 6 Name the orchestral instrument that can play high notes?Deselect Answer Viola Piccolo Oboe Violin Cellos Q. 7 One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, the psychological insights he portrays in both male and female characters are amazing even today.Deselect Answer Shakespeare’s characters are more interesting than fictional characters today. People today are interested in Shakespeare’s work because of the characters. Academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shake- speare’s work. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shake- speare. Shakespeare was a psychiatrist as well as a playwright Q. 8 The Fourth Amendment to the Constitution protects citizens against unreasonable searches and seizures. No search of a person’s home or personal effects may be conducted without a written search warrant issued on probable cause. This means that a neutral judge must approve the factual basis justifying a search before it can be conducted. This paragraph best supports the statement that the police cannot search a person’s home or private papers unless they haveDeselect Answer Legal authorization. Direct evidence of a crime. Read the person his or her constitutional rights. A reasonable belief that a crime has occurred. Requested that a judge be present. Q. 9 Most of the women in the orchestra wore conventional black skirts and white shirts during concerts and had their hair neatly pulled back. Robin, with her brightly colored clothing and unusual hair styles, was considered quite eccentric. What is the meaning of the underlined word eccentric as it is used in the sentence?Deselect Answer unconventional joyful unreliable proud insane Q. 10 What is the source of the oxygen released into the air as a product of photosynthesis?Deselect Answer Chlorophyll Carbondioxide only Water only Both water and carbondioxide Fructose Q. 11 As a scientist, you are investigating a karyogram by carrying out a karyotype analysis. Which one of the below is not correct for karyotype analysis ?Deselect Answer Karyotype analysis is carried out at metaphase This method helps to obtain information if there is gene mutation Chromosome size can be seen by this technique Karyotype analysis require microscopic equipments Chromosomal abnormalities can be detected using this technique Q. 12 Which of the following plays an important role in the human immune system?Deselect Answer Femur Metatarsals Patella Scapula Vertebra Q. 13 The diagram shows the muscles involved in extending the arm. Which actions result in this movement? Deselect Answer Muscle 1 relaxes while muscle 2 contracts Muscle 1 contracts while muscle 2 relaxes Muscle 1 contracts, and then both muscles relax Muscle 1 and muscle 2 both relax at the same time Muscle 1 and muscle 2 both contract at the same time Q. 14 Cellular respiration is a significant event occuring for all cells in terms of providing the energy in which the cell requires. Which one of the below is correctly matched for an eukaryotic cell ?Deselect Answer Pyruvate Oxidation – Matrix Citric Acid Cycle – Cytoplasm Chemiosmosis – Stroma Glycolysis – Thylakoid Electron Transport Chain - Cytoplasm Q. 15 A plant is exposed to increasing light intensity from very dim to bright light, while the carbon dioxide concentration and temperature are kept at an optimum level. What will happen to the rate of oxygen production?Deselect Answer It will increase exponentially. It will remain constant. It will decrease to a minimum level. It will increase to a maximum level. It will decrease to normal level and remain there Q. 16 Photosynthesis is an important for glucose production by using light energy and it involves special steps. Which one of the below is not true about photosynthesis ?Deselect Answer Photolysis occurs during light dependent reactions NADP is oxidized in light independent reactions Main aim of the Calvin cycle is carbon fixation Calvin cycle takes place in the matrix ATP is produced by photophosphorylation in light dependent Q. 17 Which one of the following about biomolecules is correctly matched? Biomolecules Bond Type I Carbohydrates Ester Bond II Lipids Glycosidic Bond III Proteins Peptide Bond IV Nucleic Acids Phosphodiester Bond Deselect Answer II and IV III and IV I and III I and II II and III Q. 18 During the carbon cycle, which of the following carbon compounds would be utilized as an energy source by heterotrophs?Deselect Answer calcium carbonate carbonic acid organic molecules carbon dioxide carbon monoxide Q. 19 The first diagram below shows the levels of mRNA from two different genes ( bicoid and caudal) at different positions along the anterior-posterior axis of a Drosophila egg immediately before fertilization. The second diagram shows the levels of the two corresponding proteins along the anterior-posterior axis shortly after fertilization. Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the data?Deselect Answer Caudal protein stimulates development of anterior structures Bicoid protein inhibits translation of caudal mRNA. Translation of bicoid mRNA produces caudal protein. Bicoid protein stabilizes caudal mRNA Caudal protein inhibits the development of bicoid Q. 20 Which of the following is/are true regarding sensory receptors? They can transduce mechanical stimuli into electrical signals They can transduce the binding of a neurotransmitter into electrical signals They can transduce the binding of a chemical into electrical signals They can trigger an action potential in the cell Deselect Answer 1 only 2 only 1 and 2 only 1,2 and 3 only 1,3 and 4 only Q. 21 The tiny blue-eyed Mary flower is often one of the first flowers seen in the spring in some regions of the United States. The flower is normally blue, but sometimes a white or pink flower variation is found. The following data were obtained after several crosses. Which of the following statements best explains the data?Deselect Answer Flower color is an inherited trait, and the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the flowers arising from the pink and white cross can best be explained by another gene product that influences the phenotypic expression. The appearance of blue in the F1 generation of the pink and white cross demonstrates that flower color is not an inherited trait but is determined by the environment. Since the F1 and F2 phenotypes of the pink and white cross do not fit the expected genotypic and phenotypic ratios, blue-eyed Mary must reproduce by vegetative propagation. Flower color depends on stages of flower development, and young flowers are white, advancing to pink and then blue. Genotype of F1 members are all homogeneous. Q. 22 The endocrine system incorporates feedback mechanisms that maintain homeostasis. Which of the following demonstrates negative feedback by the endocrine system?Deselect Answer After a meal, blood glucose levels become elevated, stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin into the blood. Excess glucose is then converted to glycogen in the liver, reducing blood glucose levels. During labor, the fetus exerts pressure on the uterine wall, inducing the production of oxytocin, which stimulates uterine wall contraction. The contractions cause the fetus to further push on the wall, increasing the production of oxytocin. At high elevation, atmospheric oxygen is more scarce. In response to signals that oxygen is low, the brain decreases an individual’s rate of respiration to compensate for the difference. A transcription factor binds to the regulatory region of a gene, blocking the binding of another transcription factor required for expression. During high intensity activities heart rate increases. Q. 23 Which of the following is/are true about the offspring of a Ff x Ff cross? 1/4 of the offspring will have genotype FF 1/2 of the offspring will have genotype Ff 3/4 of the offspring will have the dominant phenotype 1/3 of the offspring will have genotype ff Deselect Answer 1 and 3 only 1 and 2 only All are true 1, 2 and 3 only 2, 3 and 4 only Q. 24 Different photosynthetic organisms have different types of chlorophyll molecules. The distribution of chlorophylls in several different groups of organisms is shown in the table. A plus sign (+) in the table indicates the presence of a chlorophyll, while a minus sign (-) indicates its absence. Based on the data, which of the following most likely describes the evolutionary relationship among the organisms?Deselect Answer Because green algae and flowering plants contain chloroplasts, they evolved more recently than brown algae, red algae, and cyanobacteria did. Because all of the organisms contain chlorophyll a, the organisms share a common ancestor. Because brown algae, red algae, and cyanobacteria lack chlorophyll b, they evolved before green algae and flowering plants did. Because increasingly complex forms of chlorophyll are found in red algae, brown algae, green algae, and flowering plants, respectively, this reflects the order of their appearance. Order of evolution cannot be determined with the table. Q. 25 Which one of the following is NOT true of human hormones?Deselect Answer They are all chemicals Some, such as testosterone and estrogen, can be steroids They travel at the speed of blood flow A hormone may affect one or more structures in the body They are all released from glands and flow down ducts into the bloodstream Q. 26 The chemical reaction for photosynthesis is 6 CO₂ + 12 H₂O + light energy C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6 O₂ + 6 H₂O If the input water is labeled with a radioactive isotope of oxygen, 18O, then the oxygen gas released as the reaction proceeds is also labeled with 18O. Which of the following is the most likely explanation? Deselect Answer During the light reactions of photosynthesis, water is split, the hydrogen atoms combine with the CO₂, and oxygen gas is released. During the Calvin cycle, water is split, regenerating NADPH from NADP+, and oxygen gas is released. During the Calvin cycle, water is split, the hydrogen atoms are added to intermediates of sugar synthesis, and oxygen gas is released. During the light reactions of photosynthesis, water is split, removing electrons and protons, and oxygen gas is released. During the light reaction of photosynthesis, water is split, the hydrogen atoms are released to the atmosphere. Q. 27 Which of the following is not part of the lac operon of E. coli?Deselect Answer Genes for inducible enzymes of lactose metabolism Genes for the repressor, a regulatory protein Gene for RNA polymerase The promoter, the RNA polymerase binding site The operator, the repressor binding site Q. 28 In which of the following stages can chromatids be present? the start of mitosis the start of meiosis the end of cytokinesis Deselect Answer 1 and 2 only 1, 2 and 3 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 3 only Q. 29 By which process does a glucose molecule move through a cell membrane from a region of greater concentration to one of lower concentration?Deselect Answer diffusion facilitated diffusion osmosis active transport filtration Q. 30 Which of the following labels, i to v, represents a nucleotide?Deselect Answer i ii iii iv v Q. 31 The following pedigree shows the heredity of a sex-linked trait. Which of the following statements is most correct? Deselect Answer female 6 of generation II is homozygous Male 4 of generation II is heterozygous male 2 of generation III is homozygous male 4 of generation III has a dominant phenotype female 3 of generation II is heterozygous Q. 32 Which of the following statements about muscle contraction is true?Deselect Answer The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP provides energy to the process The binding of Ca²+ to troponin exposes the active sites on actin and allows myosin head to grab onto actin Both A and B The contraction can be initiated only consciously Contraction does not occur in smooth muscles Q. 33 Which one of the following contains an element in a +1 oxidation stateDeselect Answer CO₂ PbO₂ CaO N₂O₅ Cu₂O Q. 34 Which one of the following has a central atom with less than an octet of electrons?Deselect Answer H₂O NH₃ BH₃ CH₄ SiH₄ Q. 35 Which of the following elements has the largest first ionization energy?Deselect Answer Li Be B C N Q. 36 A 0.20 mol sample of MgCl₂(s) and a 0.10 mol sample of KCl(s) are dissolved in water and diluted to 500 mL. What is the concentration of Cl- in the solution?Deselect Answer 0.15 M 0.30 M 0.50 M 0.60 M 1.0 M Q. 37 Atoms of Mg combine with atoms of F to form a compound. Atoms of which of the following elements combine with atoms of F in the same ratio?Deselect Answer Li Ba Al Cl Ne Q. 38 C3H8(g) + 5 O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O(l) In the reaction represented above, what is the total number of moles of reactants consumed when 1.00 mole of CO2(g) is produced?Deselect Answer 0.33 mol 1.33 mol 1.50 mol 2.00 mol 6.00 mol Q. 39 How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are in an 5626Fe atom?Deselect Answer 26 Protons 30 Neutrons 26 Electrons 26 Protons 56 Neutrons 26 Electrons 30 Protons 26 Neutrons 30 Electrons 56 Protons 26 Neutrons 26 Electrons 56 Protons 82 Neutrons 56 Electrons Q. 40 Which of the following molecules contains polar covalent bonds but is a nonpolar molecule?Deselect Answer CH₃Cl CH₂Cl₂ NH₃ CCl₄ N₂ Q. 41 H2 + F2 → 2 HF In the reaction represented above, what mass of HF is produced by the reaction of 3.0 × 1023 molecules of H2 with excess F2?(Assume the reaction goes to completion). H: 1 F:19Deselect Answer 1.0 g 4.0 g 10. g 20. g 40. g Q. 42 For which of the following reaction mixtures at equilibrium would reducing the volume of the container at constant temperature cause the equilibrium to shift toward the products?Deselect Answer SrCO₃(s) ⇌ SrO(s) + CO₂(g) C(s) + CO₂(g) ⇌ 2 CO(g) CO(g) + H₂O(g) ⇌ CO₂(g) + H₂(g) PCl₅(g) ⇌ PCl₃(g) + Cl₂(g) 2 NO₂(g) ⇌ N₂O₄(g) Q. 43 Which one of the following is closed formula for ethylene?Deselect Answer C₂H₆ C₂H₄ C₂H₂ CH₂CH₃ None of the above Q. 44 C2H4(g) is reduced by H2(g) in the presence of a solid platinum catalyst, as represented by the equation above. Factors that could affect the rate of the reaction include which of the following? I. Changes in the partial pressure of H2(g)II. Changes in the particle size of the platinum catalystIII. Changes in the temperature of the reaction systemDeselect Answer III only I and II only I and III only II and III only I, II, and III Q. 45 2 NH3(g) → 3 H2(g) + N2(g) ΔHo298 = 92 kJ/molrxnAccording to the information above, what is the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔHfo, for NH3(g) at 298 K ?Deselect Answer −92 kJ/mol −46 kJ/mol 46 kJ/mol 92 kJ/mol 184 kJ/mol Q. 46 HSO4-(aq) + CO32-(aq) ⇌ SO42-(aq) + HCO3-(aq) The reaction represented above is observed to proceed spontaneously to the right in aqueous solution. In this system the strongest base is A) SO42-(aq)B) CO32-(aq)C) H2O(l)D) HCO3-(aq)E) HSO4-(aq)Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 47 Which of the following lists the substances F2, HCl, and HF in order of increasing boiling point?Deselect Answer HF < HCl < F₂ HF < F₂ < HCl HCl < F₂ < HF HCl < HF < F₂ F₂ < HCl < HF Q. 48 In figure, PQ is a chord of circle with centre O and PT as a tangent. If ∠QPT=60° , find ∠PRQ.Deselect Answer 60° 90° 100° 120° 150° Q. 49 Let g be a function defined for all reals. Which of the following conditions is not sufficient to guarantee that g has an inverse function?Deselect Answer g(x) = ax + b, a ≠0. g is strictly decreasing. g is symmetric to the origin. g is strictly increasing. g is one-to-one. Q. 50 For the given expression below what is the constant term?Deselect Answer 64 32 16 15 12 Q. 51 What is/are the exact solution(s) of the expression below? e2x - 5ex + 6 = 0Deselect Answer 2 3 ln2 and ln3 ln3 2 and 3 Q. 52 (a+2i)(b-i)=Deselect Answer a+b-i ab + 2 ab + (2b − a)i + 2 ab - 2 ab + (2b - a)i - 2 Q. 53 The range of the function f={(x,y):y=5-4x-x²}Deselect Answer {y:y ≤ 0} {y:y ≥-9} {y:y ≤ 9} {y:y ≥ 0} {y:y ≤ 1} Q. 54 One of the zeros of a second-degree polynomial expression with integer coefficients is x1= 2-√7 and the other is x2. What is the ratioDeselect Answer A B C D E Q. 55 Five blocks having equal mass but made of different substances, as shown above, are heatedto 100°C and placed on separate 10 kg blocks of ice that are at a temperature of 0°C. Whichsubstance melts the greatest amount of ice?Deselect Answer The substance with the lowest specific heat. The substance with the highest specific heat. The substance with the greatest surface area. The substance with the smallest surface area. The substance that started with the highest temperature. Q. 56 The speed v of a liquid leaving a tube depends on the change in pressure P and the density ρ of the liquid. The speed is given by the equation where k is a constant that has no units. What is the value of n?Deselect Answer 1/3 2/3 1/2 1 2 Q. 57 A radio-controlled toy car travels along a straight line for a time of 15 s. The variation with time t of the velocity v of the car is shown. What is the average velocity of the toy car for the journey shown by the graph?Deselect Answer –1.5 m s‾¹ 0.0 m s‾¹ 4.0 m s‾¹ 4.5 m s‾¹ –4.5 m s‾¹ Q. 58 The acceleration of free fall on Pluto is 0.66 m s–2. An object weighs 6.0 N on Earth. What would this object weigh on Pluto?Deselect Answer 9.3 N 0.40 N 0.93 N 4.0 N 39 N Q. 59 An electron gun is used to accelerate electrons from rest through a voltage V. The electrons emerge with a speed u. The voltage in the gun is halved to V/2. At what speed do the electrons emerge?Deselect Answer u/2 u/4 u/√2 u√2 2u Q. 60 Entropy of a system always …………in an irreversible systemDeselect Answer increases decreases remains constant zero negative 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:5 Haziran 9, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:5 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 Generation Xers are those people born roughly between 1965 and 1981. As employees, Generation Xers tend to be more challenged when they can carry out tasks independently. This makes Generation Xers the most entrepreneurial generation in history.This paragraph best supports the statement that Generation XersDeselect Answer work harder than people from other generations. have a tendency to be self-directed workers have an interest in making history tend to work in jobs that require risk-taking behavior. like to challenge their bosses’ work attitudes. Q. 2 A study at Institute of Public Health has shown that there are still millions of people who are unaware that they endanger their health by over eating. This is so, despite government campaigns to warn people of the dangers of over eating. Reluctantly, one has to draw the conclusion that the mandatory warnings that nutrition companies are required to print have had no effect. Which of the following, if true, would refute the argument in the passage?Deselect Answer Many people who continue to eat more are aware of the dangers of over eating. Some people eat more food for legitimate reasons. Government has had to force companies to warn potential customers of the dangers of over use of their products. Some people who are aware of the dangers of over eating were made aware of them by the mandatory warnings. Over eating is clearly responsible for a substantial proportion of preventable illness in the country. Q. 3 There are plenty of debates on whether a college education is worth it or not. People who argue that college is worth it contend that college graduates have higher employment rates, bigger salaries, and more work benefits than high school graduates. They say college graduates also have better interpersonal skills, live longer, have healthier children, and have proven their ability to achieve a major milestone.Which of the following statements, if true, most strongly supports the view that college education is worth it?Deselect Answer Student loan debt is crippling for college graduates. Many successful people never graduated from college and that many jobs, especially trades jobs, do not require college degrees. According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, of the 30 projected fastest growing jobs between 2010 and 2020, five do not require a high school diploma, nine require a high school diploma, four require an associate's degree, six require a bachelor's degree, and six require graduate degrees The 2017 poverty rate for bachelor's degree holders was 4%, compared to a 12% poverty rate for high school graduates. Some students who has collage degree gets high-paid jobs. Q. 4 India’s baffling array of state and national labor laws date to the 1940s: one provides for the type and number of spittoons in a factory. Another says an enterprise with more than 100 workers needs government permission to scale back or close. Many Indian businesses stay small in order to remain beyond the reach of the laws. Big firms use temporary workers to avoid them. Less than 15% of Indian workers have legal job security. The new government can sidestep the difficult politics of curbing privileges by establishing a new, simpler labor contract that gives basic protection to workers but makes lay-offs less costly to firms. It would apply only to new hires; the small proportion of existing workers with gold-star protections would keep them.Which of the following options best summarizes the main idea of the paragraph?Deselect Answer More Indian workers can get permanent jobs and legal job security if existing labor laws are reformed. Effective labor law reform can encourage many Indian businesses to grow to more than 100 workers. Outdated Indian labor laws need to be simplified to provide basic protection to workers and curb privileges. The difficult politics of curbing privileges can be avoided if the changes in the labor law only apply to the new hires. Some firms uses low-paid workers to avoid the laws Q. 5 Jason: The Internet is making more information available to more people than ever before in history. So, people can simply learn all they need to know without seeking the advice of experts. Mark: In the past, the need for experts actually increased as the volume of knowledge increased. Therefore, the Internet will surely increase our dependence on experts. The dialogue most strongly supports the claim that Jason and Mark disagree with each other about whetherDeselect Answer the Internet will contribute significantly to the increase in the spread of information throughout society the Internet will increase the likelihood that people will seek the advice of experts when searching for knowledge the Internet makes more information available to more people experts will increase their reliance on the Internet in the future explaining knowledge to specialists can only be accomplished by Internet experts Q. 6 Read the following explanation and find the correct term."A policy aimed at providing economic and military support to those European countries which were fighting Communist takeover in the Cold War, especially Greece and Turkey ".Deselect Answer UN NATO ICBM MEC FMI Q. 7 There are no effective boundaries when it comes to pollutants. Stud- ies have shown that toxic insecticides that have been banned in many countries are riding the wind from countries where they remain legal. Compounds such as DDT and toxaphene have been found in remote places like the Yukon and other Arctic regions. This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer toxic insecticides such as DDT have not been banned throughout the world. more pollutants find their way into polar climates than they do into warmer areas. studies have proven that many countries have ignored their own anti-pollution laws DDT and toxaphene are the two most toxic insecticides in the world. even a worldwide ban on toxic insecticides would not stop the spread of DDT pollution. Q. 8 Today’s postal service is more efficient than ever. Mail that once took months to move by horse and foot now moves around the country in days or hours by truck, train, and plane. If your letter or package is urgent, the U.S. Postal Service offers Priority Mail and Express Mail services. Priority Mail is guaranteed to go anywhere in the United States in two days or less. Express Mail will get your package there overnight. This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer more people use the post office for urgent deliveries than any other delivery service. Express Mail is a good way to send urgent mail. Priority Mail usually takes two days or less. Mail service today is more effective and dependable. Mail was once delivered by horse and foot Q. 9 In prolonged space flight, besides the obvious hazards of meteors, rocky debris, and radiation, astronauts will have to deal with muscle atrophy brought on by weightlessness; therefore, when they return to Earth, they face a protracted period of weight training to rebuild their strength. What is the most likely meaning of the underlined word debris as it is used in this passage?Deselect Answer fragments decay bacteria alien life garbage Q. 10 Which type of light is least useful for photosynthesis in terrestrial plants?Deselect Answer Blue Green White Red Purple Q. 11 Which of the following is part of the process of cellular respiration?Deselect Answer Changes in the volume of the thoracic cavity Exchange of gases across the surface of the alveoli Exchange of gases across the surface of capillaries Glycolysis Photolysis Q. 12 Which one of the following is not true about the reproductive system ?Deselect Answer Semen contains mucus which helps sperm to survive from acidic environment Acrosome region of the sperm is responsible for releasing of hydrolytic enzyme Egg has 2 different layers as corona radiata and zona pellicuda Sperms gain their flagella in prostate gland Fertilization occurs in oviduct Q. 13 Which one of the below is not correctly matched to each other ?Deselect Answer Stomach pH = 1-3 Blood pH = 7.4 Pancreatic juice pH = 8-11 Urine pH = 5-7 Bile pH = 9-11 Q. 14 Meiosis is a very important process in order to generate gametes including sperm and eggs. Any error occuring in any stage of the meiosis might cause an abnormality for the cells which may end up by a syndrome depending on the chromosome number. Down Syndrome is one of the syndrome which results from an error happening in meiosis. In which phase of the meiosis the error might likely to occur and what might cause that situation ?Deselect Answer Interphase Error in proofreading mechanism Telophase Error in cytokinesis Anaphase Error in nondisjunction of chromosomes Prophase Error during supercoiling S phase Error in DNA replication Q. 15 A female chimpanzee recently gave birth to an infant while in captivity. Because the paternity of the infant is unclear, scientists tested the DNA from two male chimpanzees, along with the female and infant. The resulting electrophoresis gel is shown.Which labeled DNA fragment is largest?Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 16 A female chimpanzee recently gave birth to an infant while in captivity. Because the paternity of the infant is unclear, scientists tested the DNA from two male chimpanzees, along with the female and infant. The resulting electrophoresis gel is shown.Which fragments must the infant have received from its father?Deselect Answer 1 and 2 2 and 5 3 and 4 3 and 5 4 and 5 Q. 17 A female chimpanzee recently gave birth to an infant while in captivity. Because the paternity of the infant is unclear, scientists tested the DNA from two male chimpanzees, along with the female and infant. The resulting electrophoresis gel is shown.Based on the gel electrophoresis result, what can be concluded?I. Male 1 could possibly be the parent.II. Male 1 can be ruled out as the parent.III. Male 2 could possibly be the parent.IV. Male 2 can be ruled out as the parent.Deselect Answer II only I and III I and IV II and III II and IV Q. 18 The enzyme trypsin aids in protein digestion in the small intestine. The relative activity of trypsin at different PH values is shown in Figure I.Which of the following statements best explains the activity levels of trypsin shownin Figure I?Deselect Answer The small intestine releases inhibitor molecules that block the activity of trypsin unless it is at its optimum pH. The number of effective collisions between trypsin and its substrate increase at higher PH values. As PH values increase, the substrate concentration leading to an eventual dedine in the rate of the trypsin-catalyzed reaction. At extremely Iow pH values, trypsin is denatured and cannot function fhciently. At neutral acidity it performs best Q. 19 Mutations in the CFTR gene cause cystic fibrosis (CF). The non-mutated allele of the gene can be obtained and then introduced into the lung cells of a person with CF using liposomes as a vector. This treatment gives only short-term relief from the symptoms of CF. Which of the following statements would be a correct explanation of this treatment? Genes are unstable and break down over time in the cell. Lung cells are constantly being replaced and new cells will have the faulty allele. The non-mutated allele is recessive. Deselect Answer 1 only 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 only 2 and 3 only Q. 20 The occurrence of a particular genetic condition in a family is shown in the pedigree above. Which of the following is the most likely inheritance pattern for the individuals with the condition? Squares represent males, circles represent females, and shaded symbols represent individuals who exhibit the condition.Deselect Answer Autosomal dominant Sex-linked dominant Y linked Autosomal recessive Sex-linked recessive Q. 21 Which two of the following are final products of glycolysis? phosphorylated triose ATP NAD pyruvate Deselect Answer 2 and 4 1 and 3 2 and 3 1 and 4 3 and 4 Q. 22 Production of ATP occurs in all of the following processes EXCEPTDeselect Answer glycolysis Krebs cycle electron transport system and chemiosmosis light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis light-independent reactions of photosynthesis Q. 23 The genes P, Q, R and S found on the same chromosome. The crossover values (COV) for the pairs of genes are: P and Q 35% P and R 5% R and Q 40% Q and S 10% R and S 30% Which one of the following sequences of letters represents a correct order of genes on the chromosome?Deselect Answer PQRS PRSQ PQSR RPSQ RSQP Q. 24 Which of the following pairs of plants are most closely related? I. Broad bean (Vicia faba) II. Soybean (Glycine max) III. Kidney bean (Phaseolus vulgaris) IV. Barley (Hordeum vulgaris) V. Scarlet runner bean (Phaseolus coccineus)Deselect Answer I and II I and III II and III III and IV III and V Q. 25 The following structures are found in plant cells: cell wall cell membrane nucleolus mitochondrion Which cell structures might contain molecules containing carbohydrate monomers?Deselect Answer 1 only 1 and 4 only 2 and 3 only 4 only 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q. 26 A new species of succulent epiphytic flowering plant was discovered in the canopy of a tropical rain forest. Experiments were carried out to determine the plant’s photosynthetic capacity by measuring the net uptake of carbon dioxide and changes in tissue starch concentration over a 32-hour period with 8 hours of dark at the start and end of the measurement period and 16 hours of moderate light between the two dark periods. The changes in the rate of carbon dioxide uptake and the concentration of tissue starch are shown in the diagram below. Which of the following is consistent with the data?Deselect Answer The highest rate of carbon dioxide uptake occurs at the beginning of the light period. The highest rate of carbon dioxide uptake occurs at the beginning of the dark period. The highest rate of carbon dioxide uptake occurs near the end of the dark period. The highest starch concentration occurs at the beginning of the light period. The lowest starch concentration occurs at the end of the light period. Q. 27 A petri dish contains populations of two different species of bacteria (V and W). Both are growing and reproducing at the same rate, using the same resources. The conditions are then changed and the rate of growth and reproduction of the population of species V increases. Which of the following, acting independently, could cause this increase in growth and reproduction rate? A decrease in temperature A change in pH The addition of an antibiotic Deselect Answer 1 and 2 only 2 and 3 only 1 and 3 only 2 only 1, 2 and 3 Q. 28 A student used a microscope to observe a wet-mount slide of red onion epidermal celis that were suspended in a I % NaCl solution. The student then added a 1596 NaCL solution to the slide and observed the changes that occurred. The student's observations are represented in Figure 1.Which of the following most directly explains the changes in the cells?Deselect Answer The degradation of DNA in the nuclei of the celis The Iysis of chloroplasts in the celis The movement ofwater from the central vacuoles of the celis into the solution The movement of NaCl from the solution into the cytoplasm of the celis Osmasis has no function in that. Q. 29 Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is important in maintaining homeostasis in mammals. ADH is released from the hypothalamus in response to high tissue osmolarity. In response to ADH, the collecting duct and distal tubule in the kidney become more permeable to water, which increases water reabsorption into the capillaries. The amount of hormone released is controlled by a negative feedback loop. Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production?Deselect Answer As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine. As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine. As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine. As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine. As tissue osmolarity reduces more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine Q. 30 Platelets are fragments oflarger celis and normaliy circulate in the blood without adhering to blood vessel walls. When the wall ofa blood vessel is damaged, collagen fibers in the wall are exposed to the interior of the blood vessel. The exposed fibers and chemicals released from the endothelial celis that line the blood vessel attract platelets, which start to form a Plug and release other chemicals (Figure I).Which of the following best explains the feedback mechanism illustrated in Figure I ?Deselect Answer This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area. This is an example of positive feedback, because it results from the interactions among collagen, endothelial cells, and platelets. This is an example of negative feedback, because a large clump of platelets can block the blood vessel and prevent blood flow through it. This is an example of negative feedback, because the accumulation of platelets returns the open blood vessel wall to a closed state. This is an example of negative feedback because vessel wall returns to its first State Q. 31 Which option correctly identifies the site of the light-dependent reactions in photosynthesis (S), the hydrogen carrier (H) used and its end state (N)?Deselect Answer S: stroma; H: FAD; N: oxidized S: stroma; H: NAD; N: reduced S: stroma; H: NADP; N: oxidized S: granum; H: NAD; N: reduced S: granum; H: NADP; N: reduced Q. 32 The apple maggot fly, Rhagoletis pomonella, is native to North America and originally fed on fruit of the Wild hawthorn. Since the mid-1800s, a population of flies has emerged that instead feed on domesticated apples. Apple maggot flies typically mate on or near the fruit of their host plants. Many varieties of apples ripen three to four weeks before the hawthorn fruits do.The different fruit preferences of the two fly populations Will most likely have which of the following effects?Deselect Answer The flies that eat hawthorn fruit Will increase in number, while the flies that eat apples Will decrease in number because of the üşe of insecticides on apple trees. The single fly species Will evolve into two distinct species because of the lack of gene flow between the two populations. The ability to survive on a diet oftwo different fruits Will help the flies learn to eat many more types offruit. The flies that eat hawthorn fruit Will lay some of their eggs on the earlierripening apples to minimize competition among the larvae. More information needed to specify the answer. Q. 33 Which one of the following reactions can be considered decomposition?Deselect Answer XY₂ (aq) + 2Y(aq) → X (s) + Y₄ (aq) CaO(s) + CO₂(g) → CaCO₃(s) Y₂(g) + 1/2 X₂ (g) → Y₂X (g) NH₃(g) → N₂(g) + 3H₂ (g) PCl₂ (g) + PCl₃ (g) ⇌ PCl₅ (g) Q. 34 How many sigma bonds exist in 1 molecule of acetylene?Deselect Answer 5 4 3 2 1 Q. 35 Which one of the following reaction’s Kc value could be equal to 1?Deselect Answer NH₃(g) ⇌ N₂(g) + 3 H₂ (g) PCl₂ (aq) + PCl₃ (aq) ⇌ PCl₅ (g) Cl₂ (g) + CO (s) ⇌ COCl₂(g) X₂(s) + 1/2 Y₂(s) ⇌ X₂Y (s) Br₂ (g) + Cl₂ (g) ⇌ 2 BrCl (g) Q. 36 Which one of the following affects the reaction rate negatively?Deselect Answer Increasing the concentration of the reactants Adding a catalyst to the reaction mixture Increasing the temperature Increasing the particle size Increasing the surface area Q. 37 N₂(g) + 3 H₂ (g) ⇌ 2NH₃ (g) reaction reached equilibrium at 25 C. Equilibrium concentrations are [N₂] = 4 M, [H₂] = 0.1 M, [NH₃] = 4 M. What is the equilibrium constant?Deselect Answer 4000 4 40 16 256 Q. 38 For the reaction: A + B ⇌ C + D, which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium towards the reactants?Deselect Answer Increasing the concentration of A Increasing the concentration of A Increasing the pressure Adding a catalyst Increasing the temperature Q. 39 According to the chemical reaction below which one(s) of the following statements could be correct? HSO₄- (aq) + NH₃ (aq) → NH₄ + (aq) + SO4 2- (aq) I. The reaction is an acid-base reaction.II. NH₃ acts as a base in the reaction.III. HSO₄ - and SO₄ 2- are conjugated acid-base pair.Deselect Answer Only I Only II Only III I and II I, II and III Q. 40 Given the equation: 2 Cr(s) + 3 Pb²+(aq) → 2 Cr³+(aq) + 3 Pb(s), which is the correct reduction half reaction?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 41 A student prepares a solution by dissolving 0.37 g Ca(OH)₂ solid in 10L of water. Then evaporates 9L of the water from the container. What will be the pH of the resulting solution? Ca(OH)₂ = 74 mol/gDeselect Answer 2 6 8 10 12 Q. 42 Most transition metals share a common oxidation state of +2. Which of the following best explains why?Deselect Answer Transition metals all have a minimum of two unpaired electrons. Transition metals have unstable configurations and are very reactive. Transition metals tend to gain electrons when reacting with other elements. Transition metals will lose their outermost s-block electrons when forming bonds Transition metals are members of group 2A and +2 is the common charge of this group. Q. 43 Which of the following boils at the highest temperature?Deselect Answer CH₄ C₂H₆ C₃H₈ C₄H₁₀ C₅H₁₂ Q. 44 The normal boiling point of a liquid isDeselect Answer the temperature at which the vapor pressure equals 760 torr. The temperature above which the substance cannot exist as a liquid regardless of the pressure. the temperature at which the gas molecules have more kinetic energy than the molecules in the liquid. the only temperature at which there can be equilibrium between liquid and gas. the temperature at which the liquid will usually boil. Q. 45 What is the correct name for the given molecule?Deselect Answer 2,3- dibromo 4-isopropyl-7-methyl nonane 2,3- dibromo 4-propyl-7-methyl nonane 3- methyl 6-isopropyl -7,8-dibromo nonane 3- methyl 6-propyl -7,8-dibromo nonane 3- methyl 6-butyl -7,8-dibromo nonane, Q. 46 In Universal indicators, a pH of 11 to 14 is indicated throughDeselect Answer Turquoise color Blue color Violet color Light Violet color Deep red color Q. 47 Which of the following aqueous solutions should have the highest boiling point?Deselect Answer 1.0 M NaOH 1.0 M Na₂SO₄ 1.0 M NH₄NO₃ 1.0 M KNO₃ 1.0 M NaCl Q. 48 If F, V and E are number of faces, vertices and edges of a triangular pyramid respectively, then which of the following statement is true?Deselect Answer F + V -2E = 3 2F - 4V + E = 3 F + V -3E = 4 2F + V – E = 6 F + V + E = 12 Q. 49 For the graph of the equation in the X-Y coordinate system a and b are positive numbersI. If a= b and sign between the terms is positive, then the equation represent a circle II. If a≠b and sign between the terms is positive, then the equation represent a hyperbolaII. If a= b and sign between the terms is negative, then the equation represent a parabola Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?Deselect Answer I only II only III only I and II only All of them Q. 50 A reduction of 10% in the price of tea enables a dealer to purchase 25 kg more tea for $225. What is the price in dollar per kg before reduction ?Deselect Answer 0.7 0.8 0.9 1.0 1.1 Q. 51 There are two identical boxes A with 3 blue 2 red and 1 yellow marbles in it where as in the box B there are 1 blue 2 red and 2 yellow marbles. If I choose one from the box A and put it in the box B. Then, I choose a ball from the box B what is the probability that I will get a red one?Deselect Answer 11/36 1/3 7/18 1/6 3/10 Q. 52 Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 53 The equation x²+4x+m=0 has two real roots x₁ and x₂. If [x₁]³ x₂+[x₂]³ x₁=14, find the value of m.Deselect Answer 1 3 5 7 9 Q. 54 Which expression has the same SI base units as pressure?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 55 A hanging basket of weight W is supported by three chains of equal length, each at an angle θ to the vertical. The tension, T, in each chain is given byDeselect Answer A B C D E Q. 56 If weight of an object is 900 N on the surface of Earth, what will be its weight if it is elevated to a height two times the radius of Earth’s surface?Deselect Answer 100 225 300 450 900 Q. 57 Two blocks of mass M kg and 2,5 kg respectively are connected by a light, inextensible string. The string runs over a light, frictionless pulley, as shown in the diagram below. The coefficient of static friction (μs) between the unknown mass M and the surface of the table is 0,2. If system released it starts to speed up to 6 m/s in 3 seconds, what is the mass M? ( Gravitational acceleration is 10 m/s2)Deselect Answer 2 kg 2.4 kg 3 kg 4 kg 5 kg Q. 58 A negatively charged rod is brought near an uncharged, grounded electroscope. Which of the following statements is true?Deselect Answer The positive charge flows from the electroscope to the ground The positive charge flows from the ground to the electroscope The negative charge flows from the electroscope to the ground The negative charge flows from the ground to the electroscope The electroscope stays neutral because the rod doesn’t touch it Q. 59 An electrical motor provides 0.50 W of mechanical power. How much time will it take the motor to lift a 0.1 kg mass at constant speed from the floor to a shelf 2.0 m above the floor? (g:10 m/s2)Deselect Answer 0.25 s 0.40 s 1.0 s 2.0 s 4.0 s Q. 60 A block slides from rest with negligible friction down the track above, descending a vertical height of 5.0 m to point P at the bottom. It then slides on the horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the block and the horizontal surface is 0.20. How far does the block slide on the horizontal surface before it comes to rest?Deselect Answer 0.40 m 1.0 m 2.5 m 10m 25m 1 out of 1
IMAT 2023 Deneme Sınavı N:4 Haziran 3, 2023 by Burak IMAT 2023 Deneme Sınavı N:4 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 One of the warmest winters on record has put consumers in the mood to spend money. Spending is likely to be the strongest in thirteen years. During the month of February, sales of existing single-family homes hit an annual record rate of 4.75 million.This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer consumer spending will be higher thirteen years from now than it is today. more people buy houses in the month of February than in any other month. during the winter months, the prices of single-family homes are the lowest. there were about 4 million homes for sale during the month of February. warm winter weather is likely to affect the rate of home sales. Q. 2 Markham says that the new development is overpriced. But Markham also was convicted of embezzling. Therefore, Markham must be incorrect because he can’t be trusted. The argument above is flawed because it Deselect Answer Mistakes a necessary conclusion for a sufficient conclusion. Relies on ambiguous wording to advance its point. Attacks the person instead of the argument they are advancing Suggests a causal relationship based on correlated events. Assumes that one circumstance is representative of all circumstances. Q. 3 Wall chalking on public property should be outlawed. Radicals and fanatics have no right to use public property when promoting their unsavory views. The argument above is based on the idea:Deselect Answer The general public has an interest in the free exchange of different political views. Every person who uses wall chalking for the promotion of ideas is a radical or fanatic. Radicals and fanatics prefer the use of public property while propagating their viewpoint Legal constraints should be equal for all Any promotional activity, which is against public interest, should be protected by law. Q. 4 A pregnant wild elephant in Kerala’s Silent Valley Forest fell in victim to an act of human cruelty after a pineapple filled with powerful crackers offered by a man exploded in her mouth when she chomped on it. Her jaw was broken, and she was unable to eat after she chewed the pineapple, and it exploded in her mouth. The incident took place in the fringe areas of the Silent Valley in Attappadi, Kerala. The post-mortem revealed that the pachyderm was pregnant. The issue of the pachyderm’s tragic death came to light after Mohan Krishnan, a forest officer, posted an emotional note on his Facebook page, narrating the death of the elephant in the waters of the Velliyar River. In which of the following cases the reason is same as in case of the killing of the elephant mentioned in the paragraph?Deselect Answer Tens of thousands of pangolins are poached every year, killed for their scales for use in traditional Chinese medicine and for their meat, a delicacy among some ultra-wealthy in China and Vietnam. In 2010, a study led by the World-Wide Fund for Nature projected that a sea level rise of 11 inches could reduce the number of tigers in the Sundarbans, by 96 per cent within a few decades. While the government did not provide any numbers for deaths caused by other big cats, conflicts with leopards have become so common that villagers regularly mount hunting parties when one ventures near their homes, threatening children and livestock. As the human population in China continues to grow, pandas' habitat gets taken over by development, pushing them into smaller and less livable areas which lead to food shortages and it’s the main reason that panda populations have declined If such an increase continues in deforestation, all animals will suffer Q. 5 The best way to create a successful party is to visualize the guests discussing it with friends the next day. The hostess should first decide what aspects of the party will lead to favorable comments from guests during those conversations and then come up with refreshments and activities that will actually cause such post-party talk to occur. Which one of the following illustrates a principle most similar to that illustrated by the passage?Deselect Answer When planning a vacation, some travelers decide first where they want to go, and then plan their route. But, for most people, financial issues must also be taken into account. When landscaping the grounds of a new home, you should start with the topsoil and then choose your shrubbery and other foliage. Good moviemakers do not extemporaneously film their movies in one or two days with no script; a movie cannot be separated from the story upon which it is based. In negotiating an employment contract, the best method is to make as many outlandish demands as possible and then agree to forgo the most outrageous of them. To make a great golf shot, you should picture the ball landing where you want it to land, and then you will be able to line up your body and your club accordingly. Q. 6 Gustav Klimt lived and worked in the same City as:Deselect Answer Thomas Mann Johann Wolfgang von Goethe Albrecht Dürer Hieronymous Bosch Sigmund Freud Q. 7 Directions: Read the following passage and answer next 3 questions that follow. Refer to the textto check your answers when appropriate."Click!" That's the sound of safety. That's the sound of survival. That's the sound of a seat belt locking in place. Seat belts save lives and that's a fact. That's why I don't drive anywhere until mine is on tight. Choosing to wear your seat belt is a simple as choosing between ife and death. Which one do you choose?Think about it. When you're driving in a car, you may be going 60 MPH or faster. That car is zipping down the road. Then somebody ahead of you locks up his or her brakes. Your driver doesn't have time to stop. The car that you are in crashes. Your car was going 60 miles per hour. Now it has suddenly stopped. Your body, however, is still going 60 MPH. What's going to stop your body? Will it be the windshield or your seat belt? Every time that you get into a car you make that choice. I choose the seat belt.Some people think that seat belts are uncool. They think that seat belts cramp their style, or that seat belts are uncomfortable. To them I say, what's more uncomfortable? Wearing a seat belt or flying through a car windshield? What's more uncool? Being safely anchored to a car, or skidding across the road in your jean shorts? Wearing a seat belt is both cooler and more comfortable than the alternatives.Let's just take a closer look at your choices. If you are not wearing your seat belt, you can hop around the car and slide in and out of your seat easily. That sounds like a lot of fun. But, you are also more likely to die or suffer serious injuries. If you are wearing a seat belt, you have to stay in your seat. That's no fun. But, you are much more likely to walk away unharmed from a car accident. Hmmm... A small pleasure for a serious pain. That's a tough choice. I think that I'll avoid the serious pain.How about giving money away? Do you like to give your money away? Probably not. And when you don't wear your seat belt, you are begging to give your money away. That's because kids are required to wear seat belts in every state in America. If you're riding in a car, and you don't have a seat belt on, the police can give you or your driver a ticket. Then you will have to give money to the city. I'd rather keep my money, but you can spend yours how you want.Wearing a seat belt does not make you invincible. You can still get hurt or killed while wearing your seat belt. But wearing them has proven to be safer than driving without them. You are much less likely to be killed in a car wreck if you are wearing a seat belt. You are much less likely to get seriously injured if you are wearing one. So why not take the safer way? Why not go the way that has been proven to result in fewer deaths? You do want to live, don't you?Which best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this text?Deselect Answer To inform readers about seat belt laws To persuade readers to wear seat belts To entertain readers with stories and jokes about seat belts To describe what car accidents are like without seat belts To explain readers how to wear a seatbelt Q. 8 Which best describes the text structure in the fourth paragraph?Deselect Answer Compare and contrast Chronological order Sequential order Problem and solution Matching Information Q. 9 Which best defines the word alternatives as it is used in the third paragraph?Deselect Answer Being safe Being unsafe Other choices Driving fast Other seatbelts Q. 10 People with an A-positive blood type may safely donate blood to those with which blood type?Deselect Answer A negative B positive O negative AB positive AB negative Q. 11 An allele that codes for all actin molecules to be synthesized in linear chains would result inDeselect Answer immovable muscles smooth muscle tissue normal sarcomere structure degeneration of muscle tissue muscle tendons that cannot attach Q. 12 A genetic mutation that adds a nucleotide to a protein-coding sequence of DNA creates an early stop codon. How will this influence the resulting protein?Deselect Answer The primary structure of the protein will be unaffected The secondary structure of the protein will be unchanged. The protein will not be translated at all. The protein will be complete but function abnormally. The protein will be synthesized normally up to the mutation. Q. 13 What are the three structural components of a nucleotide?Deselect Answer A carboxyl, a sugar, and a phosphate A phosphate, an amino acid, and a carboxyl An amino acid, a carboxyl, and a phosphate A sugar, a phosphate, and a nitrogenous base A nitrogenous base, an amino acid, and a sugar Q. 14 Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a retrovirus that integrates its own DNA into a host cell's genome usingDeselect Answer DNA polymerase helicase primase ligase reverse transcriptase Q. 15 Which can affect the primary structure of a protein? I. Genetic mutation II. Increase in temperature III. Decrease in pHDeselect Answer I only I and II I and III II and III I, II, and III Q. 16 A sample of DNA is sequenced and is found to consist of 32% guanine. Which conclusion can be drawn about the composition of the DNA sample?Deselect Answer It consists of 18% cytosine and 18% thymine. It consists of 18% adenine and 18% cytosine. It consists of 32% cytosine and 18% thymine. It consists of 32% adenine and 18% cytosine. It consists of 32% thymine and 18% adenine. Q. 17 cientists constructed a phylogenetic tree of modern lizard genera based on DNA sequences, shown belowWithin this group of lizards, several genera have evolved characteristics similar to those found in snakes. One mutation contributed to a diminished external ear in the genera indicated by an asterisk. What is the most recent point at which this mutation most likely occurred?Deselect Answer After Aprasiadiverged from Paradelma After Lialisdiverged from Pletholax When Aprasiaand Pletholaxlast shared a common ancestor When Lialisand Pygopuslast shared a common ancestor After Aprasiadiverged from Ophidiocephalus Q. 18 Which statements are correct for chloroplasts and also for mitochondria?1 They contain 80S ribosomes.2 They can transcribe their circular DNA.3 They can translate mRNA.4 They are enclosed by double membranes.Deselect Answer 1, 2, 3 and 4 1 and 2 only 2, 3 and 4 only 3 and 4 only 1 and 3 only Q. 19 A gene that affects hair length in dogs has two alleles. The allele for short hair (L) is dominant to the allele for long hair (l). A cross of two short-haired dogs produces six short-haired and two long-haired offspring. Which of the following best explains how the long-hair phenotype can appear in the offspring of two short-haired dogs?Deselect Answer Only recessive alleles are inherited from homozygous parents Dominant alleles grow weaker as they are passed from parents to offspring. Only the parent with a dominant allele can pass that allele to offspring in sexual reproduction A heterozygous parent has an equal chance of passing either the dominant allele or the recessive allele to offspring Dominant alleles are inherited from both parents Q. 20 Which statement describes an example of an extracellular enzyme?Deselect Answer Amylase in saliva is an enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of starch in the mouth Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme that helps in the transport of carbon dioxide in blood DNA polymerase is an enzyme that helps build DNA molecules from nucleotides RNA polymerase is an enzyme involved in the process of gene transcription. Rubisco is an enzyme involved in the process of Calvin Cycle Q. 21 The diagram below represents a single-celled organism.Which labeled part identifies this single-celled organism as eukaryotic?Deselect Answer cell membrane cytoplasm flagellum nucleus combination of all Q. 22 The sequence shows the series of bases at the start of a gene.TAC CGA CCA CCA CAA CCA CGA...After transcription, the mRNA was translated via tRNA into a sequence of amino acids. When this part of the polypeptide was analysed, it was found to contain the amino acids in the table. What is the sequence of amino acids in this part of the polypeptide?Deselect Answer Met Ala Gly Ala Gly Gly Val Met Ala Gly Gly Val Gly Ala Met Gly Ala Ala Ala Val Gly Met Gly Ala Ala Val Ala Gly Met Gly Ala Ala Gly Gly Val Q. 23 Which statements about arteries are correct?1 Artery walls can resist high pressure.2 Arteries pump blood out of the heart.3 Blood in arteries has the same flow rate as in veins.4 The pulse in arteries is the result of a surge in blood that causes expansion of the artery wall.5 There are semilunar valves at the junction of arteries with the heart.Deselect Answer 1, 2 and 4 1, 3 and 5 1, 2 and 3 1, 4 and 5 2, 3 and 4 Q. 24 The diagram shows a human female’s reproductive organs. What is the name of structure X?Deselect Answer cervix ovary oviduct ovule vagina Q. 25 A dominant alleleDeselect Answer causes only harmful characteristics is responsible for male characteristics. never undergoes mutation causes only useful characteristics produces the same phenotype in heterozygotes and homozygotes Q. 26 Which is a sudden change in a gene or chromosome?Deselect Answer allele genotype homozygous mutation phenotype Q. 27 Which group contains substances that are all carried in the blood?Deselect Answer amino acids, carbon dioxide and cellulose glucose, glycogen and lactic acid adrenaline, urea and saliva oestrogen, oxygen and starch salts, testosterone and urea Q. 28 What is true for a runner, at the end of a marathon race, in a hot climate?Deselect Answer sweating and vasoconstriction sweating and vasodilation sweating only vasoconstriction only vasodilation only Q. 29 Which target organ releases glucose into the blood-stream as a result of the action of adrenaline?Deselect Answer adrenal gland kidney muscle liver pancreas Q. 30 The diagram shows the effect of an enzyme working in the human digestive system. What would reduce the rate of production of amino acids?Deselect Answer removing the amino acids as they are formed increasing the amount of protein raising the temperature to 40 °C adding water into environment raising the pH to 7.5 Q. 31 Lactase is a human enzyme that catalyses the breakdown of lactose in milk. At which temperature does lactase work fastest?Deselect Answer 0°C 18°C 37°C 50°C 100°C Q. 32 Which two substances are both reabsorbed in the kidneys?Deselect Answer glucose and salts glucose and starch glycogen and salts starch and glycogen glycogen and starch Q. 33 Magnesium is a more reactive metal than copper. Which is the strongest oxidizing agent?Deselect Answer Mg Mg²⁺ Cu Cu²⁺ Cu (g) Q. 34 What is the IUPAC name for CH₃CH₂CH(CH₃)₂?Deselect Answer 1,1-dimethylpropane 2-methylbutane isopentane ethyldimethylmethane Ethylaminometane Q. 35 Which statements about exothermic reactions are correct?I. They have negative DH values.II. The products have a lower enthalpy than the reactants.III. The products are more energetically stable than the reactants.Deselect Answer I and II only I and III only II and III only I, II and III III only Q. 36 Which compound, when dissolved in aqueous solution, has the highest pH?Deselect Answer HCl Na₂CO₃ NH₄Cl Na₂O CH₃COOH Q. 37 What is the pH of a solution that contain 0.005 moles of Ca(OH)₂ in 100 m?Deselect Answer 2 4 6 8 12 Q. 38 Which one of the following is the correct electronic arrangement for ₂₄Cr²⁺ ?Deselect Answer 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d² 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁴ 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s1 3d³ 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ Q. 39 For the reaction belowH₂(g) + I₂(g) ⇌ 2HI(g)at a certain temperature, the equilibrium concentrations are (in mol dm‾³)[H₂] = 0.30, [I2] = 0.30, [HI] = 3.0What is the value of K?Deselect Answer 5.0 10 15 100 50 Q. 40 What will be the new concentration (in percent by mass) of a 5 % 100 g solution if 5 g of solute is added and 5 g of solvent removed?Deselect Answer 20 15 10 5 E) None of the above Q. 41 What is the IUPAC name of given molecule?Deselect Answer Pent-1-ene Hex-1-yne Hept-1-yne Hex-5-yne Hex-1-ane Q. 42 Four aqueous solutions, I, II, III and IV, are listed below. I. 0.100 mol dm⁻³ HClII. 0.010 mol dm⁻³ HClIII. 0.100 mol dm⁻³ NaOHIV. 0.010 mol dm⁻³ NaOHWhat is the correct order of increasing pH of these solutions?Deselect Answer I, II, III, IV I, II, IV, III II, I, III, IV II, I, IV, III II, IV, I, III Q. 43 Which one of the following is an isomer of But-1-ene?Deselect Answer 2- methyl prop-1-ene 1-methyl butane Neobutane Cyclobutene Buta -1,3- dine Q. 44 Which of the following statements about isotopes is true?Deselect Answer Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different numbers of electrons. Isotopes are atoms of different elements with the same number of protons. Isotopes have the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Isotopes have the same mass number but different atomic numbers. Isotopes have the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of neutrons. Q. 45 Which of the following statements best describes the properties of an acidic solution?Deselect Answer Has a pH less than 7 and turns red litmus paper blue Has a pH greater than 7 and turns blue litmus paper red Has a pH less than 7 and turns blue litmus paper red Has a pH greater than 7 and turns red litmus paper blue Has a pH of 7 and does not affect litmus paper. Q. 46 Which of the following substances has the highest boiling point at 1 atm pressure?Deselect Answer Ethanol Methane Water Hexane Carbon dioxide Q. 47 ABC is a right-angled triangle, [AB] ⊥ [AC], |AD|=|DC|=|ED|, |EB|=3cm, |EC|=9cm. find the value of |AB|=xDeselect Answer 2√6 4√2 6 2√7 √30 Q. 48 Which of the following statements is true regarding the properties of an ideal gas?Deselect Answer The particles have no volume The particles have no intermolecular attractions The particles have a definite shape The particles have a high melting point The particles have a low boiling point Q. 49 Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. The diagram shows a net of a right solid with a regular base. The height of the solid formed from the net can be computed by evaluating which of the following expressions? b is perpendicular to the side and starts from the center of pentagon. Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 50 Find the center and vertices of the ellipse.x² +9y² +16x—54y+ 136=0Deselect Answer center: (3, –8) vertices: (0, –8), (6, –8) center: (8, –3) vertices: (7, –3), (9, –3) center: (–8, 3) vertices: (–9, 3), (–7, 3) center: (–8, 3) vertices: (–11, 3), (–5, 3) center: (8, –3) vertices: (5, –3), (11, –3) Q. 51 The histogram above represents the lifespan of a random sample of a particular type of insect. Determine the relationship between the mean and median.Deselect Answer mean = median mean ≈ median mean < median mean > median cannot be determined with the graph Q. 52 Which coordinates represent a point in the solution set of the system of inequalities shown below?Deselect Answer (-4, 1) (-2, 2) (1, -4) (2, -2) (0, 2) Q. 53 Find all of the solutions to the given function in the interval [0, 360)2sinx + √3=0Deselect Answer 30º, 150º 210º, 330º 60º, 120º, 240º, 300º 240º, 300º 60º, 120º Q. 54 Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. Students are investigating the effects of passing a bar magnet through a coil of wire atteached to an ammeter, as shown in the diagram. This activity is most appropriate for introducing students to which of the following applications of electromagnetism?Deselect Answer how to build an electromagnet how electric motors operate how to build an electric circuit how electricity is generated how to produce sound with magnet Q. 55 Heat transfer by convection occurs whenDeselect Answer electromagnetic waves travel from one place to another through a vacuum. electrons bump into other electrons. atoms give off heat in the form of electromagnetic waves. particles of a fluid move from place to place. none of the above Q. 56 An astronaut floating at rest in space throws a wrench in one direction and subsequently recoils back with a velocity in the opposite direction. Which of the following statements is/are true? I. The velocity of the wrench is equal and opposite to the velocity of the astronaut. II. The momentum of the wrench is equal and opposite to the momentum of the astronaut. III. The impulse applied to the wrench is equal and opposite to the impulse applied to the astronaut.Deselect Answer I only II only I and II only II and III only I, II, and III Q. 57 The diagram shows a stone suspended under the surface of a liquid from a string. The stone experiences a pressure caused by the liquid.What would increase the pressure on the stone?I. decreasing the surface area of the stoneII. increasing the mass of the stoneIII. lowering the stone deeper into the liquidDeselect Answer I only II only III only II and III only All of them Q. 58 Weight of an object on Earth is 120 N. what will be its weight on a planet having double the mass and double the radius of Earth.Deselect Answer 30 N 60 N 120 N 240 N 480 N Q. 59 Three objects are located along the x-axis as shown above. The center of mass of the objects is at x =Deselect Answer 1.0 m 1.5 m 2.0 m 2.5 m 3.0m Q. 60 The maximum mass that can be hung vertically from a string without breaking the string is 10 kg. A length of this string that is 2 m long is used to rotate a 0.5 kg object in a circle on a frictionless table with the string horizontal. The maximum speed that the mass can attain under these conditions without the string breaking is most nearlyDeselect Answer 5 m/s 10 m/s 14 m/s 20 m/s 100m/s 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:3 Mayıs 26, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:3 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q.1 One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing even today. This paragraph best supports the statement thatDeselect Answer Shakespeare's characters are more interesting than fictional characters today people even today are interested in Shakespeare's work because of the characters. Academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare's work. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare. Shakespeare was a psychiatrist as well as a playwright. Q. 2 Some schools have gymnasiums. All gymnasiums have basketball hoops. Some basketball hoops have glass backboards. Based on the information above, which of the following must be true?Deselect Answer All schools have gymnasiums Some schools have basketball hoops with plastic backboards Some schools have basketball hoops with glass backboards. All schools have basketball hoops Some schools have basketball hoops Q. 3 Annie likes chocolate. Everyone who likes chocolate also enjoys peanut butter. Therefore, Annie enjoys peanut butter. Which of the following has reasoning parallel to the argument above?Deselect Answer Students who read books love theater. The fifth-grader loves theater. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves reading books. Students who read books love theater. The fifth-grader reads books. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves theater Students who read books love theater. The student is a fifth-grader. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves reading books The fifth-grader loves theater. Students who love books love theater. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves reading books The fifth-grader reads books. Students who love theater read books. Therefore, the fifth-grader loves theater Q. 4 Because it is extremely cold outside, the library will be open as a warming center. The library usually opens as a warming center when it is extremely cold or when there is the possibility of another dangerous weather event. Extremely low temperatures count as a dangerous weather event.Which of the following best expresses the conclusion of the passage above?Deselect Answer It is extremely cold outside. Extremely low temperatures count as a dangerous weather event. The library usually opens as a warming center when it is extremely cold. The library will be open as a warming center. The library usually opens as a warming center when there is the possibility of another dangerous weather event. Q. 5 The historic low point in the economy was caused by the high interest rates that were initiated immediately before the low point was achieved.Which of the following most weakens the statement above?Deselect Answer The economy was already worsening well before the interest rates were increased. High interest rates have previously improved the economy. High interest rates always impact economic growth. Interest rates impact other parts of society outside of the economy too. Experts agree that low interest rates are the best way to improve the economy. Q. 6 Seven piano students—T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z—are to give a recital, and their instructor is deciding the order in which they will perform. Each student will play exactly one piece, a piano solo. In deciding the order of performance, the instructor must observe the following restrictions: 1. X cannot play first or second. 2. W cannot play until X has played. 3. Neither T nor Y can play seventh. 4. Either Y or Z must play immediately after W plays. 5. V must play either immediately after or immediately before U plays. If U plays third, what is the latest position in which Y can play?Deselect Answer first second fifth sixth seventh Q. 7 Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows. A student arranges regular n-gons, each with a side length measuring 1 unit, as shown in the diagram. The student then calculates the perimeter, P, for each iteration, k, of the given pattern. For any regular n-gon, which of the following equations can be used to calculate the perimeter of the kth iteration?Deselect Answer P=(n-2)k+2 P=(2k+2)n P=(n-1)k+1 P=(k+1)n P=k.n Q. 8 The following table gives the percentage distribution of population of five states, P, Q, R, S and T on the basis of poverty line and also on the basis of sex. If the population of males below poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for State T is 6 million, then the total populations of States Q and T are in the ratio?Deselect Answer 1:3 2:5 3:7 4:9 4:11 Q. 9 Sammy and Elyse work at the same grocery store. They are both part-time employees. Elyse is always scheduled to work 1 day and then has 2 days off. Sammy works 1 day and then has 3 days off. The store is open every day. If Elyse and Sammy both worked on Wednesday, when is the next time they will both be scheduled on the same day?Deselect Answer Monday Tuesday Thursday Friday Sunday Q. 10 A gift shop is going out of business. Prices for all items in the store were assigned in July. Each month after that, the price was 40% less than the price the previous month. If the price of an item was d dollars for July, what was the price for October?Deselect Answer 0.128d 0.16d 0.2d 0.216d 0.64d Q. 11 Which country was a threat to the British industry and power at the outbreak of the 20th century?Deselect Answer Japan Germany Russia France İtaly Q. 12 Originally painted by Velasquez, "Las meninas" was painted even by:Deselect Answer Goya Picasso El Greco Mirô Dali Q. 13 Which of the following Polish politicians received a Nobel Peace Prize?Deselect Answer Gomulka Wojtyla Walesa Pilsudski Komorovski Q. 14 The Piccolo Teatro of Milan was built and inaugurated:Deselect Answer before the First World War before the Second World War after the Second World War between the two World Wars atfer the end of the Cold War Q. 15 Sicily is best represented by what shape?Deselect Answer Triangle Square Cirde Trapezium Rectangle Q. 16 Charging more than maximum legal interest rate is called:Deselect Answer detriment fraud usury interest benefit Q. 17 The epic saga "Lord of the Rings" was written by:Deselect Answer Alice B, Toklas J.R.R. Tolkien Andrej Tarkovskij Scott Turow Junichiro Tanizaki Q. 18 Montevideo lies on which sea?Deselect Answer Atlantic Ocean Pacific Ocean Caribbean Sea Mexico Gulf Sargasso Sea Q. 19 Which one of the following movies was directed b James Cameron?Deselect Answer Alien Avatar Minority Report Capricorn One Jurassic Park Q. 20 Stieg Larsson was a Swedish writer and journalist who became famous worldwide with the:Deselect Answer Century Trilogy Scandinavian Trilogy Blomkvist Trilogy Lisbeth Trilogy Millennium Trilogy Q. 21 What is formed from glucose during anaerobic cell respiration?Deselect Answer Lactate and ATP in cytoplasm Carbon dioxide and water in mitochondria Lactate and carbon dioxide in mitochondria Carbon dioxide and water in cytoplasm Ethanol in mitochondria Q. 22 Which of the following chambers or vessels carry deoxygenated blood in the human heart?Deselect Answer 4 only 1 and 2 only 5 only 1, 2, and 4 6 only Q. 23 What happens during the pathway of glycolysis?Deselect Answer Glucose is broken down into pyruvate. Glucose is broken down into pyruvate. NADH oxidized More ATP is consumed than is produced. Lactic acid is produced Q. 24 To understand the workings of neurons, an experiment was conducted to study the neural pathway of a reflex arc in frogs.A diagram of a reflex arc is given below.Which of the following represents the correct pathway taken by a nerve impulse as it travels from the spinal cord to effector cells?Deselect Answer 1-2-3-4 6-5-4-3 2-3-4-5 4-5-6-7 1-3-5-7 Q. 25 Which process is possible due to the fluidity of cell membranes?Deselect Answer Diffusion Endocytosis Osmosis ATP production Cell recognition Q. 26 Consider the following enzyme pathway:An increase in substance F leads to the inhibition of enzyme 3. All of the following are results of the process EXCEPTDeselect Answer an increase in substance X increased activity of enzyme 6 decreased activity of enzyme 4 increased activity of enzyme 5 increase activity of enzyme 7 Q. 27 The following events occur in mitosis.X: Attachment of spindle microtubules to centromeresY: Movement of sister chromatids to opposite polesZ: Supercoiling of chromosomesWhat is the correct sequence of events?Deselect Answer X → Z → Y X → Y → Z Y → X → Z Z → X → Y Z → Y → X Q. 28 The graph below shows the growth curve of a bacterial culture.Which of the following represents the carrying capacity of the environment?Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 29 What is a feature of transcription?Deselect Answer Both strands of a DNA molecule act as a template for mRNA. Nucleoside triphosphates become nucleotides by losing three phosphates. Transcription occurs due to semi-conservative concepts. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region. The sense strand acts as a template for mRNA Q. 30 The cell cycle is a series of events in the life of a dividing eukaryotic cell. It consists of four stages: G1, S, G2, and M. The duration of the cell cycle varies from one species to another and from one cell type to another. The G1 phase varies the most. For example, embryonic cells can pass through the G1 phase so quickly that it hardly exists, whereas neurons are arrested in the cell cycle and do not divide.During which phase do chromosomes replicate?Deselect Answer G1 S G2 M Both G1 and G2 Q. 31 Which are the possible recombinants in a dihybrid test cross involving the linked genes JQ/jq?Deselect Answer JQ/jq and JJ/Qq Jq/Qq and Qq/JJ Jq/jq and jQ/jq JQ/jq and Jq/jQ Jj/Qq and jj/QQ Q. 32 Here is a sketch of an animal cell.Which of the following statements is correct?Deselect Answer Structure A detoxifies poisons in the cell. Structure B packages proteins for export. Structure C synthesizes RNA. Structure D consists of cytoskeleton. Structure A replicate the DNA Q. 33 In a mammal that had just ingested a large volume of water, what would be secreted into the bloodstream?Deselect Answer More ADH (vasopressin) Less epinephrine (adrenaline) More insulin Less cortisone Less ADH (vasopressin) Q. 34 Four vials were set up to investigate bacterial transformation. Vials 1 and 2 each contained E. coli bacteria that had been made competent and had then been mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for ampicillin (pAMP) resistance. Vials 3 and 4 both contained E. coli that had also been made competent but had not been mixed with a plasmid. Each vial of bacteria was poured onto a nutrient agar plate. Vials 1 and 3 were poured onto plates that contained the antibiotic ampicillin. Vials 2 and 4 were poured onto plates that did not contain ampicillin.This figure shows what the nutrient agar plates looked like. The shaded plates represent extensive growth, and the dots represent individual bacterial colonies.Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing on them include which of the following?Deselect Answer Plate 1 only Plate 2 only Plate 3 only Plates 1 and 3 only Plates 2 and 3 only Q. 35 What causes variation in both sexually and asexually reproducing organisms?Deselect Answer Mutations Non-disjunction in gametes Polygenic inheritance Crossing over Independent assortment Q. 36 Which of the following is an example of a Lewis acid?Deselect Answer Sodium hydroxide Hydrochloric acid Boron trifluoride Sulfuric acid Aluminum chloride Q. 37 In a chemical reaction, if the reactants have a higher energy level than the products, the reaction is classified as:Deselect Answer Exothermic Endothermic Isothermal Adiabatic Isobaric Q. 38 A student prepares a solution using 0.08 g sodium hydroxide and 200 g water. He then takes 50 ml of this solution and transfers it to another container. What is the pH of the remaining solution?Deselect Answer 1 2 9 12 10 Q. 39 For the reaction: A + B ⇌ C + D, which of the following changes will shift the equilibrium towards the products?Deselect Answer Increasing the concentration of A Decreasing the concentration of B Increasing the pressure Adding a catalyst Increasing the temperature Q. 40 A gas sample occupies a volume of 2.50 L at a temperature of 25°C and a pressure of 1.00 atm. If the temperature is increased to 323°C and the pressure is adjusted to 2.00 atm, what will be the new volume of the gas sample?Deselect Answer 1.25 L 2.00 L 2.50 L 3.75 L 5.00 L Q. 41 Which of the following properties is typically associated with metals rather than non-metals?Deselect Answer High electronegativity Brittle at room temperature Low electrical conductivity Tendency to gain electrons in chemical reactions Malleability and ductility Q. 42 Which one of the following is the correct name for the given compound?Deselect Answer 5-ethyl-6-methyl bromo octane 4-bromo-5-ethyl-6-methyl octane 4-bromo-5-ethyl-6-methyl nonane 5-ethyl-6-methyl bromo heptane 4-ethyl-6-methyl 5- bromo heptane Q. 43 How many of the following statements is/are correct? Alkanes are isomers with alkenes with the same number of Carbons. Cyclopropane has an alkene isomer. Cycloalkenes are isomers with alkynes with the same number of Carbons. All hydrocarbons are soluble in water due to their polar molecular structures. Isomer molecules have the same closed structures but different chemical properties. Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 44 Consider the molecular formula C₄H₈. How many different structural isomers can be formed with this formula?Deselect Answer 1 2 3 4 5 Q. 45 Which of the following elements has the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1?Deselect Answer Sodium (Na) Magnesium (Mg) Aluminum (Al) Silicon (Si) Potassium (K) Q. 46 What is the atomic number of an element that contains 26 protons and 28 electrons?Deselect Answer 18 26 52 39 65 Q. 47 Which of the following is a characteristic of an acid?Deselect Answer Turns red litmus paper blue pH >7 Increases the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH-) in water Donates protons (H+) Forms a gelatinous precipitate with sodium chloride (NaCl) Q. 48 In an aqueous solution, which of the following compounds can act as both a Brønsted-Lowry acid and a Brønsted-Lowry base?Deselect Answer Ammonium chloride (NH₄Cl) Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃) Q. 49 Which one of the following correctly describes the lewis acid?Deselect Answer Lewis acids are electron pair donors Lewis acids are H+ donors Lewis acids can form coordinated covalent bonds with lewis bases Lewis acid are H+ acceptors Lewis acids do not react with water Q. 50 What will have no effect on the equilibrium position?Deselect Answer A change in Temperature A Change in concentration of a product Adding a catalyst A change in pressure Increasing the volume of the container Q. 51 Which of the following is the simplest form of the above statement?Deselect Answer 9(2c+1)/(1+2c) 3(2c+1)/c 9(c-3) 3(c-5) 9c-45 Q. 52 Let a and b be numbers such that a3=b2. Which of the following is equivalent to b√a ?Deselect Answer a b c d e Q. 53 Line l goes through points P and Q, whose coordinates are (0,1) and (b,0), respectively. For which of the following values of b is the slope of line l greater than -1/2Deselect Answer 1/2 1 3/2 5/3 5/2 Q. 54 In the figure above, |AB|=6 and |BC|=8. What is the length of segment |BD| ?Deselect Answer 2 12/5 4 24/5 6 Q. 55 The function f is graphed in its entirety above. If the function g is defined so that g(x)=f(−x), then for what value of x does g attain its maximum value? (The graph is drawn in scale)Deselect Answer −3 -2 0 2 3 Q. 56 A coin lies on the top of a turntable at a distance R from the center. The table rotates at a constant speed v. What is the minimum coefficient of static friction that can prevent the coin from sliding of the table?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 57 A parallel–plate capacitor is charged by connection to a battery. If the battery is disconnected and the separation between the plates is increased, what will happen to the charge on the capacitor and the voltage across it?Deselect Answer The charge remains fixed and the voltage increases. The charge increases and voltage remains fixed Both remain fixed. Both increase. The charge increases and the voltage decreases. Q. 58 An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown on the graph above of pressure p versus volume V. During which process is no work done on or by the gas?Deselect Answer AB BC CD DE EA Q. 59 A uniform horizontal footbridge is 12.0 m long and weighs 4000 N. It rests on two supports X and Y, as shown. A man of weight 600 N stands a distance of 4.0 m from support X.What is the upward force on the footbridge from support X?Deselect Answer 2200N 2300N 2400N 2600N 2700N Q. 60 A wooden block with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in the figure. The distance I and h are shown there. After some time the coin falls in to the water. Then Deselect Answer I decreases and h increases I increases and h decreases Both I and h increase Both I and h decrease I remains fixed and h increases. 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:2 Mayıs 21, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:2 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 Journalist: To reconcile the need for profits sufficient to support new drug research with the moral imperative to provide medicines to those who most need them but cannot afford them, some pharmaceutical companies feel justified in selling a drug in rich nations at one price and in poor nations at a much lower price. But this practice is unjustified. A nation with a low average income may still have a substantial middle class better able to pay for new drugs than are many of the poorer citizens of an overall wealthier nation. Which one of the following principles, if valid, most helps to justify the journalist’s reasoning?Deselect Answer People who are ill deserve more consideration than do healthy people, regardless of their relative socioeconomic positions. Wealthy institutions have an obligation to expend at least some of their resources to assist those incapable of assisting themselves. Whether one deserves special consideration depends on one’s needs rather than on characteristics of the society to which one belongs The people in wealthy nations should not have better access to health care than do the people in poorer nations. Unequal access to health care is more unfair than an unequal distribution of wealth Q. 2 Several critics have claimed that any contemporary poet who writes formal poetry—poetry that is rhymed and metered—is performing a politically conservative act. This is plainly false. Consider Molly Peacock and Marilyn Hacker, two contemporary poets whose poetry is almost exclusively formal and yet who are themselves politically progressive feminists.The conclusion drawn above follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?Deselect Answer No one who is a feminist is also politically conservative. No poet who writes unrhymed or unmetered poetry is politically conservative. No one who is politically progressive is capable of performing a politically conservative act. Anyone who sometimes writes poetry that is not politically conservative never writes poetry that is politically conservative. The content of a poet’s work, not the work’s form, is the most decisive factor in determining what political consequences, if any, the work will have Q. 3 About two million years ago, lava dammed up a river in western Asia and caused a small lake to form. The lake existed for about half a million years. Bones of an early human ancestor were recently found in the ancient lake-bottom sediments that lie on top of the layer of lava. Therefore, ancestors of modern humans lived in western Asia between two million and one-and-a-half million years ago.Which one of the following is an assumption required by the argument?Deselect Answer There were no other lakes in the immediate area before the lava dammed up the river. The lake contained fish that the human ancestors could have used for food. The lava that lay under the lake-bottom sediments did not contain any human fossil remains. The lake was deep enough that a person could drown in it. The bones were already in the sediments by the time the lake dried up. Q. 4 In jurisdictions where use of headlights is optional when visibility is good, drivers who use headlights at all times are less likely to be involved in a collision than are drivers who use headlights only when visibility is poor. Yet Highway Safety Department records show that making use of headlights mandatory at all times does nothing to reduce the overall number of collisions.Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent discrepancy in the information above?Deselect Answer In jurisdictions where use of headlights is optional when visibility is good, one driver in four uses headlights for daytime driving in good weather. A law making use of headlights mandatory at all times is not especially difficult to enforce. Only very careful drivers use headlights when their use is not legally required. There are some jurisdictions in which it is illegal to use headlights when visibility is good. The jurisdictions where use of headlights is mandatory at all times are those where daytime visibility is frequently poor. Q. 5 The Venetian Renaissance painter Vittore Carpaccio used sumptuous reds in most of his paintings. Since the recently discovered Venetian Renaissance painting Erato Declaiming contains notable sumptuous reds, it is probably by Carpaccio.Which one of the following contains a pattern of flawed reasoning most similar to that in the argument above?Deselect Answer Most Renaissance painters worked in a single medium, either tempera or oil. Since the Renaissance painting Calypso's Bower is in oil, its painter probably always used oil. In Italian Renaissance painting, the single most common subject was the Virgin and Child, so the single most common subject in Western art probably is also the Virgin and Child. Works of art in the Renaissance were mostly commissioned by patrons, so the Renaissance work The Dances of Terpsichore was probably commissioned by a patron. The anonymous painting St. Sebastian is probably an early Florentine painting since it is in tempera, and most early Florentine paintings were in tempera. Since late-Renaissance paintings were mostly in oil, the Venetian late-Renaissance painter Arnoldi, whose works are now lost, probably painted in oil. Q. 6 A university library budget committee must reduce exactly five of eight areas of expenditure—G, L, M, N, P, R, S, and W—in accordance with the following conditions:1. If both G and S are reduced, W is also reduced.2. If N is reduced, neither R nor S is reduced.3. If P is reduced, L is not reduced.4. Of the three areas L, M, and R, exactly two are reduced.If both M and R are reduced, which one of the following is a pair of areas neither of which could be reduced?Deselect Answer A. G, L B. G, N C. L, N D. L, P E. P, S Q. 7 Alex invested his savings in two parts. The simple interest earned on the first part at 15% per annum for 4 years is the same as the simple interest earned on the second part at 12% per annum for 3 years. Then, the percentage of his savings invested in the first part isDeselect Answer 37.5% 60% 62.5% 40% 35.5% Q. 8 Which of the models in the choices is exactly the same as the model below?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 9 A man entered a store and spent one-half of the money that was in his pocket. When he came out, he found that he had just as many cents as he had dollars when he went in and half as many dollars as he had cents when he went in. How much money did he have on him when he entered minimum?Deselect Answer 47$ and 48¢ 48$ and 47¢ 43$ and 49¢ 87$ and 94¢ 98$ and 99¢ Q. 10 Classification of 100 Students Based on the Marks Obtained by them in Physics and Chemistry in an Examination.For a certain higher program students should get at least 35 in physics and at least 75 in total. What is the difference between minimum and maximum number of students who can participate that program) Deselect Answer 13 20 27 43 59 Q. 11 Which of the following is NOT one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World?Deselect Answer The Colossus of Rhodes The Hanging Gardens of Babylon The Parthenon of Athens The Lighthouse of Alexandria he Great Pyramid of Giza Q. 12 Which of the following countries is NOT a founding member of NATO?Deselect Answer France Germany İtaly Canada Belgium Q. 13 After the American Revolution, America and Great Britain fought a second war known asthe War of:Deselect Answer 1712 1812 1912 1612 1892 Q. 14 The Almagest is the common title of a mathematical and astronomical treatise written by:Deselect Answer Nicolaus Copernicus. Pythagoras. Johannes Kepler. Claudius Ptolemy. Aristotle. Q. 15 Which of these pairs of nation and national newspaper name is wrong?Deselect Answer Germany — Süddeutsche Zeitung Denmark — De Telegraaf France — Le Monde Slovakia - Novy Cas United Kingdom -The Times Q. 16 in 1926 Germany was allowed to join the:Deselect Answer United Nations League of Numbers League of Nations European League Democratic League Q. 17 Argentin poet and writer Jorge Louis Borges died in:Deselect Answer 1996 1986 1966 1956 1946 Q. 18 An italian citizen has been denied entry into the USA. Which law has been applied?Deselect Answer Domestic law International iaw italian law Private law International treaty Q. 19 Which of the following countries is a republic?Deselect Answer Andorra United Kingdom Liechtenstein Greece Denmark Q. 20 Which one of the following theories was publicly announced to the Prussian Academy of Science on 25th November 1915?Deselect Answer String theory Dalton's atomic theory Quantum theory The Big Bang theory Einstein's general theory of relativity Q. 21 In the experiments by Meselson and Stahl that demonstrated the semiconservative replication of DNA, the researchers cultured bacteria in a medium containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen, ¹⁵ N . They then moved the bacteria to a medium containing ¹⁴ N , the lighter, more common isotope of nitrogen. After each round of replication, the researchers extracted the DNA and centrifuged the solution to separate the DNA bands by density. The test tubes below illustrate the possible banding pattern found after two bacterial generations (two rounds of DNA replication). Which test tube best illustrates the bands predicted by the semiconservative model of DNA replication?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 22 The unequal division of the cytoplasm among frog embryo cells during early cleavage, as shown in the diagram, results from Deselect Answer different amounts of DNA gastrulation of the embryo formation of the blastula segregation of the maternal and paternal cells uneven distribution of yolk Q. 23 Which of the following can be a result of exercise in a healthy human? oxygen consumption increase in muscles an increase in blood pH decrease in breathing rate Deselect Answer 1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 3 only 1, 2 and 3 1 only Q. 24 The enzyme HIV-1 protease is produced by the HIV virus. The enzyme is formed from two identical chains of 99 amino acids. In each chain, amino acids 25, 26 and 27 in the sequence form part of the active site. Which levels of structure control the shape of the active site of the HIV protease?Deselect Answer primary, secondary and tertiary only primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary primary and quaternary only secondary and tertiary only quaternary only Q. 25 A research study sampled populations of field mice annually over the course of 50 years. The population was categorized by coat color. Data from the beginning and end of the study are graphed above. What type of selection is represented by the change in the data from 1955 to 2005 ?Deselect Answer Directional selection Stabilizing selection Bimodal selection Disruptive selection Sexual selection Q. 26 Which of the following is true about a polar amino acid and cellulose?Deselect Answer Both are polysaccharides. Both contain nitrogen. Both are hydrophobic. Both contain hydrogen atoms. Both are ionic compounds. Q. 27 A new species of succulent epiphytic flowering plant was discovered in the canopy of a tropical rain forest. Experiments were carried out to determine the plant’s photosynthetic capacity by measuring the net uptake of carbon dioxide and changes in tissue starch concentration over a 32 hour period with 8 hours of dark at the start and end of the measurement period and 16 hours of moderate light between the two dark periods. The changes in the rate of carbon dioxide uptake and the concentration of tissue starch are shown in the diagram below. The photosynthetic pattern of this plant species is unusual for which of the following reasons? It has a higher rate of carbon dioxide uptake during the light period than during the dark period. It has a higher rate of carbon dioxide uptake during the dark period than during the light period. There is a positive correlation between the rate of carbon dioxide uptake and tissue starch concentration. There is an inverse correlation between the rate of carbon dioxide uptake and tissue starch concentration. Deselect Answer I only II only IV only I and III II and IV Q. 28 Which hormone is inhibited during pregnancy in order to prevent contractions of the uterus? Deselect Answer Oxytocin Progesterone Estrogen FSH LH Q. 29 The table shows selected characters used to determine relationships among four species of mammals.Which of the following characters is unique to Neomysticena ?Deselect Answer Naked (hairless) tail Three toes on hindfeet Enlarged incisors Hair tufts protruding from ears Body hair Q. 30 The graph shows the pattern of population growth for a particular species. The dotted line marked K indicates which of the following? Deselect Answer The annual reproductive rate The proportion of a population that can be removed without destroying its ability to maintain a stable population size The carrying capacity of the population The maximum number of offspring that each pair of parents can produce in a single year The intrinsic rate of reproductive increase of the population Q. 31 The antisense strand on the DNA molecule coding for three codons of a gene is TATCGCACG What are the anticodons of the three tRNA molecules that correspond to this sequence?Deselect Answer UAU, CGC and ACG ATA, GCG and TGC AUA, GCG and UGC TAT, CGC and ACG TAT, GCG and TGC Q. 32 The processes illustrated in the models depicted above all result in which of the following?Deselect Answer Transcription An increase in genetic variation An increase in the chromosome number Horizontal gene transfer no common process Q. 33 What first happens to a B lymphocyte when it becomes activated?Deselect Answer It divides by mitosis producing a clone of cells. It begins transcription and produces antigens. It differentiates into memory cells. It produces antibodies using its extensive rough endoplasmic reticulum (rER) It develops into plasma cells. Q. 34 Which reaction does not cause a net release of energy?Deselect Answer ADP combines with inorganic phosphate to form ATP ATP releases inorganic phosphate to form ADP Loss of hydrogen from reduced NAD Oxidation of reduced FAD Photolysis of water molecule Q. 35 Alkaptonuria is an inherited condition in humans that affects phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism, resulting in the production of black-coloured urine. What deduction can be made about the allele for this condition from the pedigree chart?Deselect Answer It is autosomal dominant. It is autosomal recessive. It is X-linked dominant. It is X-linked recessive. It is Y-linked recessive Q. 36 Which one of the following chemical reactions can not be considered redox? A) 4Fe+ 3O2→2Fe2O3B) CuSO4+Zn→Cu+ZnSO4C) P₄ + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3D) H2SO4 + 2KOH → K2SO4 + 2H2OE) 2Fe2++ H2O2 + 2H+ → 2Fe3+ + 2H2ODeselect Answer A B C D E Q. 37 0.2 moles sample of hydrocarbon CxHy yields after complete combustion with excess O2 gas, 0.8 moles of CO2, 1.1 moles of H2O. Hence hydrocarbon is A) C4H10B) C4H8C) C4H5D) C8H16E) C8H18Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 38 How many possible isomers are there for hexane?Deselect Answer 5 6 7 8 9 Q. 39 Which one of the following is not true for group 7 in the periodic table?Deselect Answer Chlorine has two complete electron shells before its valence shell Bromine is solid at room temperature Chlorine has the third-highest electronegativity value in group 7 Iodine has the Lowest ionization energy among the halogens. Halogens have the oxidation number of -1 when they are combined with group 1A metals. Q. 40 0.98g of H2SO4 is mixed with 100g of water. Which one of the following is true for the resulting solution? (H:1 S:32 O:16) A) pH of the resulting solution is less than 1B) The hydrogen ion concentration is 0.1 MC) The sulfuric acid concentration is 0.005 MD) The hydroxide ion concentration is 10-12 ME) The resulting solution’s pH level is higher than 7.Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 41 Deviation of gases from ideal behavior arises at_________Deselect Answer high pressure and high temperature low pressure and low temperature high pressure and low temperature low pressure and high temperature pressure and temperature have no effect on the ideal gas behavior Q. 42 Which one of the following can form H-bonding? Deselect Answer CH₃CHO CH₃CH₂CHO CH₃COOH CH₃OC₂H₅ CH₃COCH₂CH₃ Q. 43 Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct? Which one of the following statement(s) is/are correct? Cyclopropane has no alkene isomer. Ethers and alcohols are isomers with the same number of C atoms. As the number of C atoms increases the boiling point of the alkanes increases too. Deselect Answer I only I and II II only II and III III only Q. 44 How many grams of CaCO3 is needed to produce 4.4 g of CO2 according to the chemical reaction down below? (Ca: 40, C: 12, O: 16) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2Deselect Answer 0.1 g 1 g 10 g 100 g None Q. 45 Among given substances how many of them can be considered amphoteric?Deselect Answer 2 3 4 5 6 Q. 46 Which one of the following(s) is/are trueFor the given compound?I. IUPAC name is 2-methyl hex-1-eneII. General formula is C₇H₁₂III. It has an alkyne isomerDeselect Answer I only I and II II only III only II and III Q. 47 Assume that you have 200 g, 30% a salt solution. What will be the final concentration if you add 20 g of salt and 20 g of water into the solution?Deselect Answer 43 % 33% 25% 56% 13% Q. 48 Which one of the following is true for the electron arrangement of 29Cu2+? A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d10B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d8C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d9E) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d9Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 49 Which one of the following is not true for alcohols?Deselect Answer The functional group for alcohols is -OH Alcohols do contain a carbonyl carbon inside Primary alcohols can be oxidized to form aldehydes Alcohols have H-bonding between their molecules Alcohols are isomers with ethers with the same number of Carbons Q. 50 In terms of atomic radius, which one of the following could be true? A) ₁₁Na+ < ₁NaB) ₂He> ₁₀NeC) ₁₇Cl- < ₁₇ClD) ₁₂Mg> ₁₁NaE) None of themDeselect Answer A B C D E Q. 51 5 – 3x : 9 – x = – 3x + 7 : 4 – xWhat is the solution of the above equationDeselect Answer 39/40 -39/40 43/17 -37/19 33/17 Q. 52 The diagram shows a regular octagon. What is the value of x in degree?Deselect Answer 30⁰ 37,5⁰ 45⁰ 67.5⁰ 75⁰ Q. 53 Find the sum of mean, the median, and the mode for the number of vehicles owned in a survey of 52 householdsDeselect Answer 5 5.5 6 7.5 8 Q. 54 C is the center of the circle shown below. What is the equation of circle C? Deselect Answer (x-1)² + (y-3)² =100 (x+1)²+ (y+3)²=100 (x-1)²+ (y-3)²=25 (x+1)²+ (y+3)²=25 (x-1)²+ (y+3)²=50 Q. 55 What is (are) the value(s) of k for which the quadratic equation 2x2 – kx + k = 0 has equal roots isDeselect Answer 0 only 4 only 8 only 0 and 8 only 0, 4 and 8 Q. 56 Calculate the average velocity of the object whose velocity time graph is given above? Deselect Answer 17/9 19/9 2 21/9 25/9 Q. 57 A pendulum of length L is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator. When the elevator is at rest the period of the pendulum is T. How does the period of the pendulum change when the elevator moves downward with constant acceleration?Deselect Answer The period decreases. The period increases if the upward acceleration is more than g/2 but decreases if the upward acceleration is less than g/2. The period increases. The period does not change. The period becomes zero. Q. 58 To move a car of mass 1000 kg along a level road you need to apply a force of about 200 N in the direction of motion to overcome the resistance and get going. If this resistance is 100 N and you push it 20 m, what is the speed of the car? Deselect Answer 4 m/s 8 m/s 1 m/s 6 m/s 2 m/s Q. 59 The magnetic field due to a current-carrying conductor takes the form of:Deselect Answer rectangles concentric circles wavy lines straight lines radiating outwards irregular Q. 60 300 g of water requires 30000 J of thermal energy to raise the temperature from 25 °C to 85 °C, the heat capacity of the water is A) 5/3 J K-1B) 3/200 J K-1C) 4 J K-1D) 500 J K-1E) 60 J K-1Deselect Answer A B C D E 1 out of 1
IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:1 Mayıs 12, 2023 by Burak IMAT Deneme Sınavı N:1 2023 IMAT Sınavı'na hazırlanan öğrencilerimiz için oluşturulmuş çalışmadır. Aşağıdaki iletişim formunu doldurarak sınava başlayabilirsiniz. Sınav 100 dakikadır ve süre dolduğunda sayfa kapanacaktır. Başarılar Dileriz! İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q.1 Laird: Pure research provides us with new technologies that contribute to saving lives. Even more worthwhile than this, however, is its role in expanding our knowledge and providing new, unexplored ideas. Kim: Your priorities are mistaken. Saving lives is what counts most of all. Without pure research, medicine would not be as advanced as it is. Laird and Kim disagree on whether pure researchDeselect Answer derives its significance in part from its providing new technologies expands the boundaries of our knowledge of medicine should have the saving of human lives as an important goal has its most valuable achievements in medical applications has any value apart from its role in providing new technologies to save lives Q. 2 Executive: We recently ran a set of advertisements in the print version of a travel magazine and on that magazine’s website. We were unable to get any direct information about consumer response to the print ads. However, we found that consumer response to the ads on the website was much more limited than is typical for website ads. We concluded that consumer response to the print ads was probably below par as well. The executive’s reasoning does which one of the following?Deselect Answer bases a prediction of the intensity of a phenomenon on information about the intensity of that phenomenon’s cause uses information about the typical frequency of events of a general kind to draw a conclusion about the probability of a particular event of that kind infers a statistical generalization from claims about a large number of specific instances uses a case in which direct evidence is available to draw a conclusion about an analogous case in which direct evidence is unavailable bases a prediction about future events on facts about recent comparable events Q. 3 During the construction of the Quebec Bridge in 1907, the bridge’s designer, Theodore Cooper, received word that the suspended span being built out from the bridge’s cantilever was deflecting downward by a fraction of an inch (2.54 centimeters). Before he could telegraph to freeze the project, the whole cantilever arm broke off and plunged, along with seven dozen workers, into the St. Lawrence River. It was the worst bridge construction disaster in history. As a direct result of the inquiry that followed, the engineering “rules of thumb” by which thousands of bridges had been built around the world went down with the Quebec Bridge. Twentieth-century bridge engineers would thereafter depend on far more rigorous applications of mathematical analysis. Which one of the following statements can be properly inferred from the passage?Deselect Answer Bridges built before about 1907 were built without thorough mathematical analysis and, therefore, were unsafe for the public to use. Cooper’s absence from the Quebec Bridge construction site resulted in the breaking off of the cantilever. Nineteenth-century bridge engineers relied on their rules of thumb because analytical methods were inadequate to solve their design problems Only a more rigorous application of mathematical analysis to the design of the Quebec Bridge could have prevented its collapse. Prior to 1907 the mathematical analysis incorporated in engineering rules of thumb was insufficient to completely assure the safety of bridges under construction Q. 4 The supernova event of 1987 is interesting in that there is still no evidence of the neutron star that current theory says should have remained after a supernova of that size. This is in spite of the fact that many of the most sensitive instruments ever developed have searched for the tell-tale pulse of radiation that neutron stars emit. Thus, current theory is wrong in claiming that supernovas of a certain size always produce neutron stars. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?Deselect Answer Most supernova remnants that astronomers have detected have a neutron star nearby. Sensitive astronomical instruments have detected neutron stars much farther away than the location of the 1987 supernova. The supernova of 1987 was the first that scientists were able to observe in progress. Several important features of the 1987 supernova are correctly predicted by the current theory. Some neutron stars are known to have come into existence by a cause other than a supernova explosion. Q. 5 Political scientist: As a political system, democracy does not promote political freedom. There are historical examples of democracies that ultimately resulted in some of the most oppressive societies. Likewise, there have been enlightened despotisms and oligarchies that have provided a remarkable level of political freedom to their subjects. The reasoning in the political scientist’s argument is flawed because itDeselect Answer confuses the conditions necessary for political freedom with the conditions sufficient to bring it about fails to consider that a substantial increase in the level of political freedom might cause a society to become more democratic appeals to historical examples that are irrelevant to the causal claim being made overlooks the possibility that democracy promotes political freedom without being necessary or sufficient by itself to produce it bases its historical case on a personal point of view Q. 6 Seven piano students—T, U, V, W, X, Y, and Z—are to give a recital, and their instructor is deciding the order in which they will perform. Each student will play exactly one piece, a piano solo. In deciding the order of performance, the instructor must observe the following restrictions: X cannot play first or second. W cannot play until X has played. Neither T nor Y can play seventh. Either Y or Z must play immediately after W plays. V must play either immediately after or immediately before U plays. If V plays first, which one of the following must be true? Deselect Answer T plays sixth. X plays third. Z plays seventh. T plays immediately after Y. W plays immediately after X. Q. 7 In a class of 100 students, 73 like coffee, 80 like tea and 52 like lemonade. It may be possible that some students do not like any of these three drinks. Then the difference between the maximum and minimum possible number of students who like all the three drinks isDeselect Answer 52 53 47 46 45 Q. 8 Above diagram will be coloured with red, blue, or green and no adjacent triangles will be the same colour. In how many ways can this diagram be coloured?Deselect Answer 6 8 16 20 24 Q. 9 I need to eat one or more of the same snack given above. The snack must be at least 80 gram including at least 6 gram of protein and no more than 400 calories in total. Also I don’t want more than 22 grams fat. Which snack should I chose?Deselect Answer Chickpea chips Lentil bites Potato crisps Spicy vegetable bites Sweet potato chips Q. 10 The relation between triangle, quadrilateral, and square can be best illustrated by which of the following diagrams.Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 11 Who is/are the Medicine Nobel laureate in 2021?Deselect Answer David Julius, Ardem Patapoutian – USA James P. Allison, Tasuku Honjo – USA, Japan Emil Adolf von Behring – Germany Abiy Ahmed – Ethiopia Denis Mukwege, Nadia Murad – Congo, Iraq Q. 12 Find the correct match?Deselect Answer Breton – Surrealism Warhol – Beat Generation Malevich – Abstract Art Kandinsky – Impressionism Dali – Naturalism Q. 13 Which country has more Nobel Laureates in Physics?Deselect Answer Germany United Kingdom USA France Japan Q. 14 Which composer wrote the current anthem of the european union?Deselect Answer Vivaldi Beethoven Mozart Rossini Bach Q. 15 Who is Dalai Lama?Deselect Answer The main İslamic prophet in history The spiritual leader of Tibetan Buddhism The spiritual leader of Hinduism The most influent Christian monk The head of the Church of England Q. 16 The İslamic law is also known asDeselect Answer Jihad Niqab Sharia Ramadam Nowruz Q. 17 What did Alfred Nobel invent?Deselect Answer The X rays The dynamite The steam engine The radioactivity The personal computer Q. 18 Find the right country of origin of the invention?Deselect Answer The laws of motion – England The Braille system – Germany The airplane – Spain The relativity theory – Russia The nuclear reactor – USA Q. 19 With what kinds of topics does macroeconomics concern itself?Deselect Answer Economic activities of individual firms, households and other organizations Forces of supply and demand in a particular market Consumer behaviour and firms output decisions The labor market, wages and hiring decisions Aggregate economic phenomena like the rate of unemploymet and inflation Q. 20 The Italian Republic was born in:Deselect Answer 1945 1946 1948 1950 1954 Q. 21 In a DNA sample, the percentage of guanine present was 23%. What is the percentage of thymine in the sample?Deselect Answer 22% 27% 23% 44% 54% Q. 22 Which property of water is most important when heat is lost from human skin?Deselect Answer dipole properties so salts can dissolve in sweat electronegativity latent heat of evaporation boiling point of water water density is greatest at 4°C Q. 23 What would be the chemical formula of a polysaccharide made up of four glucose monomers?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 24 Which answer correctly identifies roles of the brain and the pancreas in the normal physiological regulation of the concentration of glucose in the blood?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 25 Cross over values (COV’s) can be considered as the relative distance between genes and are used to help construct chromosome maps. Four genes, called P, Q, R and S, are found on the same chromosome. Use the following COV’s to work out the sequence of the four genes. P to Q = 45 Q to R = 10 R to S = 20 P to S = 15 P to R = 30 The sequence of the genes isDeselect Answer P Q R S S P Q R R S P Q Q S R P P S R Q Q. 26 In a dihybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals, which is the least likely combination in their offspring?Deselect Answer AaBB AaBb aaBB aaBb AABB Q. 27 The base sequence of a section of DNA is shown below. C A T G C A C A T C G T G C C C A A A G T A A G G T A The maximum number of amino acids this section codes for is:Deselect Answer 4 5 6 9 18 Q. 28 Which adaptation cannot help increase the speed of transmission in a motor neurone?Deselect Answer long axon nodes of Ranvier synaptic cleft presence of an insulating myelin sheath greater axon diameter Q. 29 Which organ produces a hormone?Deselect Answer heart lung ovary spinal cord intestines Q. 30 Which processes depend on the action of enzymes? 1 digestion2 osmosis 3 respirationDeselect Answer 1 and 2 1 and 3 1 only 2 and 3 1,2 and 3 Q. 31 A palisade cell and a nerve cell are observed under a light microscope. Only the palisade cell has aDeselect Answer cell membrane cytoplasm nucleus vacuole mitochondria Q. 32 The diagram shows different types of cells. Which structure do all these cells have?Deselect Answer cell membrane cell wall chloroplast nucleus lysosome Q. 33 Albinism is an inherited condition in which pigment does not develop in the skin, hair and eyes.The allele for albinism is recessive.What are the chances of albino parents having an albino child?Deselect Answer 0% 25% 50% 75% 100% Q. 34 Which blood vessel contains valves?Deselect Answer arteriole capillary renal artery renal vein aorta Q. 35 A food item was burned in pure oxygen and released 830 kJ of energy. An identical food item of the same mass was found to produce 12 ATP’s in respiration.Assuming it takes 31 kJ to produce one ATP molecule, estimate the efficiency of respiration.Deselect Answer 10% 25% 30% 45% 50% Q. 36 How many of the following substances can be considered as acidic in solution?Deselect Answer 4 6 5 7 8 Q. 37 Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity? (₂He, ₈O, ₉F, ₁₇Cl, ₁₁Na)Deselect Answer Sodium Chlorine Fluorine Oxygen Helium Q. 38 Which one of the following compounds contains a carbonyl group inside?Deselect Answer CH₃COOH C₆H₅OH C₂H₅OH C₃H₈ C₂H₂ Q. 39 If 2 moles of hydrogen gas (H₂) react with excess oxygen gas (O₂) to form water (H₂O), how many moles of water will be produced?Deselect Answer 1 2 0.5 0.25 4 Q. 40 What is the oxidation state of chromium in K₂Cr₂O₇?Deselect Answer +2 +4 +6 +8 +3 Q. 41 Which of the following is always an example of a spontaneous process?Deselect Answer Ice melting at room temperature Water freezing at room temperature A gas expanding into a vacuum A solid dissolving in a solvent to form a solution The oxidation of carbon dioxide gas with the presence of oxygen Q. 42 What is the molecular formula of a compound that has an empirical formula of CH₂O and a molar mass of 180 g/mol?Deselect Answer C₁₆H₁₂O₅ C₉H₁₈O₉ C₁₂H₂₄O₁₂ C₁₈H₃₆O₁₈ C₆H₁₂O₆ Q. 43 Which of the following is a conjugate acid-base pair?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 44 What is the electron configuration of a nitrogen ion with a charge of -3? ( 7N)Deselect Answer 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 1s² 2s² 2p¹ 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 1s² 2s² 2p³ 1s² 2s² 2p⁸ Q. 45 Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radius?Deselect Answer Carbon Nitrogen Oxygen Fluorine Argon Q. 46 Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?Deselect Answer CH₃OH CH₃CH₂OH CH₃CH₂CH₂OH CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂OH CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH Q. 47 Which one of the following is correct about chemical equilibrium?Deselect Answer Both forward and reverse reactions stop when the system reached equilibrium. If the temperature is increased in an exothermic equilibrium, the forward reaction speeds up. Catalysts have no effect on the equilibrium position. The concentrations of reactants and products are equal when the equilibrium state is established. Pressure and volume changes have no effect on the equilibrium position in any reaction. Q. 48 According to collision theory, which of the following factors will increase the rate of a chemical reaction?Deselect Answer Increasing the concentration of the reactants Decreasing the temperature of the reaction mixture Adding an inhibitor to the reaction mixture Decreasing the surface area of the reactants Decreasing the pressure of the reaction mixture Q. 49 What is the molarity of a solution that contains 8 grams of sodium hydroxide dissolved in 500 mL of solution?Na: 23, O:16, H:1Deselect Answer 0.08 M 0.16 M 0.64 M 1.28 M 0.40 M Q. 50 Which one of the following is the molecular geometry of Ammonia? (₇N, ₁H)Deselect Answer Trigonal Planar Bent Tetrahedral Trigonal Pyramidal Linear Q. 51 -3/2 belongs to which of the following number sets I. RealII. Irrational numbers III. IntegersIV. Whole numbersDeselect Answer I only I and II only III only IV only I and IV only Q. 52 What is the sum of solution sets of the following equation? log5(x2-7x-3)=1Deselect Answer 1 8 7 -7 -5 Q. 53 Diameter of the circle is 6 m what is the area of the coloured part?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 54 Which of the following number is the result of the following equation?Deselect Answer 2 -2 27/11 3/2 9 Q. 55 Which of the following number is the result of the term independent of x in the open form of the binominal ? Deselect Answer 14/3 5/12 10/9 8/3 7/3 Q. 56 If water flows through a cross-section of a pipe with a speed 3 L/min, what is the volume of the water in cm3 passes through each second?Deselect Answer 0.5 5 30 50 300 Q. 57 What is the magnitude of resultant vector in the diagram?Deselect Answer √5 5√5 2√5 5√2 √10 Q. 58 A brick of shape rectangular prism with a mass m has sides of lengths a, b and c, where a<b<c. the brick is placed on a horizontal table such that the pressure it exerts on the table is a maximum. (g: gravitational acceleration) What is the maximum pressure P acting on the table?Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 59 In an aquarium, air bubble at the bottom has a volume = 0.5 mm3. What would be the size of the bubble at the top if the height of the water level is = 1 m. (density of water = 1000 kg⁄m3, atmospheric pressure = 1 × 105 Pa, gravitational acceleration = 10 m⁄s2)Deselect Answer 0.5 mm³ 0.55 mm³ 0.6 mm³ 0.65 mm³ 0.67 mm³ Q. 60 What is the value of i4 in the given circuit?Deselect Answer 12/5 8/5 4/5 16/5 4 1 out of 1
TOLC Psycology (4) Mart 4, 2023 by Burak TOLCH Psycology (4) İsim Soyisim E-Posta Telefon Q. 1 A new study conducted for the World Bank by Murdoch University's Institute for Science and Technology Policy (ISTP) has demonstrated that public transport is more efficient than cars. The study compared the proportion of money poured into transport by thirty-seven cities around the world. This included both the public and private costs of building, maintaining and using a transport system.The study found that the Western Australian city of Perth is a good example of a city with minimal public transport. As a result, 17% of its wealth went into transport costs. Some European and Asian cities, on the other hand, spent as little as 5%. As a consequence, these more efficient cities were able to put the money saved into attracting industry and jobs or creating a better place to live.Professor Newman, ISTP Director describes Melbourne as two cities: "A European city surrounded by a car-dependent one''. Melbourne's large tram network has greatly reduced car use in the inner city, but the outer suburbs have the same car-based structure as most other Australian cities. The increasing demand for accommodation in the inner suburbs of Melbourne suggests that people now prefer to live there.Newman believes there is a new, more general way of considering public transport issues. In the past, environmental and social justice were considered before economics. Newman, however, thinks the study demonstrates that "the auto-dependent city model is inefficient and very inadequate in both economic and environmental terms''.Supporters of the road networks often reject the models of cities with good public transport by saying that these systems would not work in their particular city. One objection is climate. Some people say their city could not make more use of public transport because it is either too hot or too cold. Newman rejects this, pointing out that public transport has been successful in both Toronto and Singapore and, in fact, checks have demonstrated no correlation between the use of cars and the climate. When it comes to other physical characteristics, road lobbies are in a stronger position. For example, Newman accepts it would be hard for a city with a lot of hills like Auckland to develop a really good rail network. However, he points out that both Hong Kong and Zurich have managed to make a success of their rail systems, even if they have more hills than most cities in the world. In fact, Newman believes the main reason for choosing one sort of transport instead of another is politics: "the more democratic the process, the more public transport is favored". He considers Portland, Oregon, a perfect example of this. Some years ago, the central government decided to finance the construction of a new road. However, local pressure groups called for a referendum and the money was spent on a railway instead, which worked extremely well. In the years that have followed, more and more rail systems have been put in, dramatically changing the nature of the city. In the UK, travel times to work had been stable for at least six centuries, and people generally avoided spending more than half an hour travelling to work. Trains and cars initially allowed people to live at greater distances without taking longer to reach their destination. However, public infrastructure did not grow with the increase in urban areas, and this caused enormous congestion problems and much longer commuting times. Many think that if people have more money they want to live further from the city centre where cars are the only practical means of transport. The example of European cities contradicts that. People are often wealthier than their American counterparts but do not use their cars as much. In Stockholm, car use has actually fallen in recent years as the city has become larger and wealthier. New studies show that developing cities in Asia, such as Jakarta and Bangkok, make more use of the car than wealthy Asian cities such as Tokyo and Singapore. In cities that developed later, the World bank and Asian Development Bank discouraged the building of public transport and people have been forced to depend on cars -- creating the massive traffic jams that characterize those cities. An alternative proposal is to convert cities that have been built for cars to rail use, by creating urban villages at hundreds of sites, mostly around railway stations. In the study Melbourne emerges asDeselect Answer a European city a place where people prefer to live a city with a growing demand for car parks a city with an efficient outer suburban tram system a city where people use two opposing modes of transport Q. 2 The use of private transportDeselect Answer has caused enormous traffic problems in Singapore has created hundreds of urban villages is more common among rich Europeans was supported in some Asian cities by banks has increased recently in Stockholm Q. 3 The ISTP report showed that cities with well-developed public transportDeselect Answer spent less money on transport spent more money on transport offered people better jobs were a good example to other cities were less well-organized Q. 4 Some people who prefer travelling by car do not agree with an increase in public transport becauseDeselect Answer it is bad for the environment it didn't work in Hong Kong and Zurich it didn't work in Toronto and Singapore there aren't enough hills in their cities it is not compatible with typical weather conditions Q .5 In the case of Portland, the most significant aspect governing the choice of trains wasDeselect Answer the building of more roads government decisions financial issues the demands of the inhabitants dramatic changes in the city Q. 6 When supernovae explode, they jettison matter into space at some 9,000 to 25,000 miles (15,000 to 40,000 kilometers) per second. These blasts produce much of the material in the universe -- including some elements, like iron, which make up our planet and even ourselves. Heavy elements are only produced in supernovae, so all of us carry the remnants of these distant explosions within our own bodies. Supernovae add enriching elements to space clouds of dust and gas, further interstellar diversity, and produce a shock wave that compresses clouds of gas to aid new star formation. But only a select few stars become supernovae. Many stars cool in later life to end their days as white dwarfs and, later, black dwarfs. But massive stars, many times larger than our own sun, may create a supernova when their core's fusion process runs out of fuel. Star fusion provides a constant outward pressure, which exists in balance with the star's own mass-driven, inward gravitational pull. When fusion slows, outbound pressure drops and the star's core begins to condense under gravity -- becoming ever denser and hotter. To outward appearances, such stars begin growing, swelling into bodies known as red super giants. But at their cores shrinking continues, making a supernova imminent. When a star's core contracts to a critical point a series of nuclear reactions is unleashed. This fusion staves off core collapse for a time -- but only until the core is composed largely of iron, which can no longer sustain star fusion. In a microsecond, the core may reach temperatures of billions of degrees Celsius. Iron atoms become crushed so closely together that the repulsive forces of their nuclei create a recoil of the squeezed core -- a bounce that causes the star to explode as a supernova and give birth to an enormous, superheated, shock wave. Supernovae also occur in binary star systems. Smaller stars, up to eight times the mass of our own sun, typically evolve into white dwarfs. A star condensed to this size, about that of Earth, is very dense and thus has strong enough gravitational pull to gather material from the system's second star if it is close enough. If a white dwarf takes on enough mass it reaches a level called the Chandrasekhar limit. At this point the pressure at its center will become so great that runaway fusion occurs and the star detonates in a thermonuclear supernova. A supernova can light the sky up for weeks, and the massive transfer of matter and energy leaves behind a very different star. Typically only a tiny core of neutrons, a spinning neutron star, is left to evidence a supernova. Neutron stars give off radio waves in a steady stream or, as pulsars, in intermittent bursts. If a star was so massive (at least ten times the size of our sun) that it leaves behind a large core, a new phenomenon will occur. Because such a burned-out core has no energy source to fuse, and thus produces no outward pressure, it may become engulfed by its own gravity and turn into a cosmic sinkhole for energy and matter -- a black hole. Supernovae from massive starsDeselect Answer will provide new energy and matter can eventually give rise to black holes have very small cores produce a large amount of pressure leave only a small amount of neutrons Q. 7 Supernovae occur whenDeselect Answer large stars have an excess of fuel star fusion creates a rise in pressure the core of a star condenses and heats up the core of a star begins to cool down and expand stars as big as our sun run out of fuel Q. 8 White dwarfsDeselect Answer cannot attract material from another star occur when a star reaches the Chandrasekhar limit can become supernovae when their pressure increases can become red super giants can evolve from stars smaller than our sun Q. 9 During the process in which a star is transformed into a supernovaDeselect Answer the core gradually heats up until it reaches an extremely high temperature a black dwarf usually occurs a black hole usually occurs an extremely hot wave is produced as a result of the explosion iron atoms expand rapidly Q. 10 SupernovaeDeselect Answer compress new stars absorb matter from space clouds produce the iron in our blood are found every 25,000 miles in space often become white dwarfs Q. 11 Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 12 Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 13 Deselect Answer the two equations have no common solutions the set of solutions of B) is included in the set of solutions of A) the two equations have two solutions in common the set of solutions of A) is included in the set of solutions of B) the two equations have the same set of solutions Q. 14 In space consider a point Q and a plane which is 1 away from Q. The intersection between this plane and the sphere with center Q and radius 2 isDeselect Answer a point a parable an ellipse with different semiaxes a circumference the empty set Q. 15 By simplifying the expression where a and b are two non-zero real numbers different from each other, we obtainDeselect Answer (a-b)/(a+b) a(a-b) a-b 1/a 1 Q. 16 The least common multiple of monomials 8x³y⁶, 6x²y⁶z², x⁴y³ isDeselect Answer 24x⁴y⁶z 24x³y³ x⁴y³ 24x²z² x²y³z Q. 17 The prime factorization of the number (2⁵-2³)⁴3² isDeselect Answer 2⁴3² 2¹²3⁶ 2⁴3⁴ 2³²3¹² 2⁸3² Q. 18 Deselect Answer A B C D E Q. 19 Which of these equations represents a straight line passing through the point (-2,3) and perpendicular to the bisector of the first quadrant?Deselect Answer x-2y+8=0 2x+2y-2=0 4x+5y=0 x+y+1=0 x-8y-6=0 Q. 20 A solution of the equation is log₃(2+x)²=6 isDeselect Answer x=log₃ 2 x=25 x=1 x=3³-log₃ 2 x=log₂3 Q. 21 The product of 40 integer numbers is positive. From this information we can deduce that it is necessarily true that:Deselect Answer at least two factors are negative 20 factors are positive and 20 factors are negative the number of positive factors is either zero or an even number all factors are positive 2 factors are positive and 38 factors are negative Q .22 John doesn't believe that Anthony passed the professional certification exam, but he doesn't have any evidence to the contrary.We can deduce that:Deselect Answer it is 99% certain that Anthony didn't pass the professional certification exam John doesn't have any evidence either of the fact that Anthony passed the professional certification exam or of the fact that he didn't pass the professional certification exam Anthony is certainly among those who didn't pass the professional certification exam John has evidence that Anthony didn't pass the professional certification exam if someone passed the professional certification exam, it wasn't Anthony Q. 23 As it is true that:- all sparrows are birds- all sparrows are small- all birds are animals- some animals don't eat leavesit can be deduced that:Deselect Answer Some small birds eat leaves At least one species of bird doesn't eat leaves All small animals are sparrows Some sparrows don't eat leaves All sparrows are small animals Q. 24 Discussing their personal finances, four friends (Dilya, Gulzoda, Laziza e Tenkokuheya) state that:- Dilya has less money than Laziza- Gulzoda has less money than Laziza- Laziza has more money than Tenkokuheya- Gulzoda has more money than DilyaThen, which of the following statements is NOT NECESSARILY correct?Deselect Answer Tenkokuheya has less money than Laziza the alphabetical order of the names is not the same as the (increasing order) of the money owned the richest among the friends is Laziza Gulzoda is not the poorest Dilya is the poorest among the friends Q. 25 If it is true that:- all engineers are logical thinkers- Anthony is an engineer- logical thinkers like scooterswhich of the following statements is certainly NOT true?Deselect Answer Whoever is a logical thinker is an engineer Anthony has the prerequisites to be a good logician It cannot be denied that Anthony likes scooters Anthony is a logical thinker and likes scooters All engineers like scooters Q. 26 Discussing their personal finances, four friends (Alan, Brian, Conan e Donald) state that:- Alan has less money than Conan- Brian has less money than Conan- Conan has more money than Donald- Brian has more money than AlanThen, which of the following statements is NOT NECESSARILY correct?Deselect Answer Brian is not the poorest Donald has less money than Conan the alphabetical order of the names is not the same as the (increasing order) of the money owned Alan is the poorest among the friends the richest among the friends is Conan Q. 27 Anna, Bruno, Carlo and Daniela are considering whether to go to Cortina next weekend.We know that:- if Carlo goes, Daniela will also go- if Anna doesn't go, Daniela won't go either- if Anna goes, Bruno will also goWhich of the following statements can be deduced?Deselect Answer If Bruno doesn't go, Carlo won't go either They'll all go Anna and Bruno will go Nobody will go If Anna goes, Carlo will also go Q. 28 The product of 40 integer numbers is positive. From this information we can deduce that it is necessarily true that:Deselect Answer the number of positive factors is either zero or an even number 2 factors are positive and 38 factors are negative all factors are positive 20 factors are positive and 20 factors are negative at least two factors are negative Q. 29 Chef John noticed that, if he does not use a gas oven, roasted meat remains raw inside or becomes burnt outside (or both).Therefore we can infer that:Deselect Answer if the meat is well cooked inside, it must have been cooked in a gas oven if the meat is well cooked inside or is not burnt outside, İt must have been cooked İn a gas oven İf the meat İs well cooked inside and İs not burnt outside, it must have been cooked in a gas oven if the meat is raw inside, it has not been cooked in a gas oven if the meat has been cooked in an electric oven, the meat is raw inside and burnt outside Q. 30 The great mathematician Countalot discovered the Incredible numbers; he does not know yet if they are finite or infinite, but he made the following conjecture:If they are infinite, then at least one of them has 8 distinct prime factors.Deselect Answer if Incredible numbers are finite, then none of them has 8 distinct prime factors if Incredible numbers are finite, then all of them have 8 distinct prime factors Incredible numbers are infinite Incredible numbers are infinite and none of them has 8 distinct prime factors Incredible numbers are infinite and all of them have 8 distinct prime factors Q. 31 The product of 40 integer numbers is positive. From this information we can deduce that it is necessarily true that:Deselect Answer at least two factors are negative 20 factors are positive and 20 factors are negative the number of positive factors is either zero or an even number all factors are positive 2 factors are positive and 38 factors are negative Q. 32 Which of these diagrams illustrates the correct relationship between:EVEN NUMBERS - MULTIPLES OF 12 - MULTIPLES OF 6?Deselect Answer Figure 5 Figure 3 Figure 4 Figure 1 Figure 2 Q. 33 How can you insert the + (plus) or the - (minus) sign in the following sequence of numbers :14 16 13 12 11 in order to have -6 as a result?(Example: if I insert + - in the sequence 5 6 7 the result is 5 + 6 - 7 = +4 , if I insert - + the result is 5 - 6 + 7 = +6)Deselect Answer + - - + - + + + + - - - - - + + - + - + Q. 34 Which pair of numbers completes the following figure?Deselect Answer 4 and 4 5 and 4 4 and 6 4 and 3 5 and 5 Q. 35 Randall purchased a shirt for 19.44 dolars using a 20 dolars bill. If his correct change was returned in only dimes (0.10 dolars) and pennies (0.01 dolars), how many coins could Randall have received?Deselect Answer 9 21 29 37 44 Q. 36 If the dollar amount of sales at Store P was 800,000 dolar for 2006, what was the dollar amount of sales at that store for 2008?Deselect Answer $727,200 $792,000 $800,000 $880,000 $968,000 Q. 37 A washing machine takes 35 minutes to wash one load of laundry, and in between washing different loads of laundry it takes Derek 2 minutes to unload and another 4 minutes to reload the machine. If the washing machine begins washing one load of laundry at 12:30pm, how many loads of laundry can Derek wash and unload before 6:35pm?Deselect Answer 8 9 10 14 15 Q. 38 The figure above represents a rectangular garden with a walkway around it. The garden is 18 feet long and 12 feet wide. The walkway is uniformly 3 feet wide, and its edges meet at right angles. What is the area of the walkway?Deselect Answer 216 196 144 120 96 Q. 39 Approximately what percent of the faculty in humanities are non-adjunct faculty?Deselect Answer 35% 38% 41% 45% 51% Q. 40 Which pair of numbers x, y should be inserted into the following table?Deselect Answer x=14 and y=720 x=14 and y=240 x=15 and y=720 x=12 and y=240 x=15 and y=240 Q. 41 Small molecules are used as the basic units in the synthesis of large food molecules.Which statement is corred?Deselect Answer Amino acids are basic units ol carbohydrates. Fatty acids are basic units of Glycerol iş a basic unit of oilş. Simple sugar is a basic unit Of gotein. Sucrose is basic unit of starch Q. 42 When a is added to meat, amino acids are produced.What is this substance?Deselect Answer a hormone an enzynıe an oil water carbohydrate Q. 43 Which type of food is not digested fore being absorbed by the body?Deselect Answer carbohydrate fat protein water nucleic asid Q. 44 A girl holds her breath for 30 seconds, breathes out, and then breathes in. Compared with the air she breathes out, the air she breathes in contains lessDeselect Answer carbon dioxide and water vapour. nitrogen and water vapour oxygen and carbon dioxide. oxygen and nitrogen. carbon dioxide only Q. 45 Which statement is correct for most veins in the human body?Deselect Answer They carry blood at high pressure. They have a pulse They have valves. They take blood away from the heart They carry blood from down to up Q. 46 in pea plants the ailele for tali, T, is dominant to the ailele for dwarf, t.Which cross would produce plants in the proprtion of 1 tali : 1 dwarf?Deselect Answer TT x Tt Tt x Tt Tt x tt tt x tt TT x TT Q. 47 What are aileles?Deselect Answer a pair of chromosomes different versions of the same gene the total number of genes on one chromosome two genes side by side on the same chromosome Different type of chromosomes Q. 48 Which of the following processes involve mitosis?Deselect Answer growth, repair and semi-conservative replication repair, growth and asexual reproduction reduction division, asexual reproduction and growth repair, reduction division and asexual reproduction reduction division and repair Q. 49 This diagram shows a section of DNAHow many hydrogen bonds would involved in holding these two strands togetherDeselect Answer 10 11 12 14 8 Q. 50 A length Of double-stranded DNA contains 180 nucleotides and for enzyme ZWhat is the maximum of amino acids in enzyme X?Deselect Answer 30 60 180 540 270 1 out of 1